I already answered your second question in my post #7 - emancipation required an amendment to the Constitution.
And yes, the Emancipation Proclamation both symbolically and effectively freed slaves in the rebellious states.
No you didn’t answer my question. Emancipation did not require an amendment, obviously. Lincoln could just declare it so. And this was back before pens and cell phones. If he could just make a declaration that applied to another country, why didn’t he make that same declaration in his own country?