No you didn’t answer my question. Emancipation did not require an amendment, obviously. Lincoln could just declare it so. And this was back before pens and cell phones. If he could just make a declaration that applied to another country, why didn’t he make that same declaration in his own country?
Lincoln could declare emancipation in those areas in rebellion in his role as commander in chief. Areas not in rebellion were not subject to orders made in that capacity. That would require a constitutional amendment, something he worked for but was blocked from getting through congress until after the 1864 election made enough democrats lame ducks that they allowed the measure to pass.
If he could just make a declaration that applied to another country, why didn’t he make that same declaration in his own country?
I swear, you people complain that Lincoln was a dictator, then you complain that he wasn't more dictatorial. Oh, and just saying that you're a different country doesn't make it so.