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To: rktman

It was the North - - ie., the people who opposed slavery - - who demanded the “3/5” of a vote for slaves. The South would have loved giving slaves a full vote. Heck, 2 votes! This ignoramus Chris Matthews is the perfect face of MSNBC. He’s a real spitfire (snort!).


18 posted on 10/21/2013 8:10:27 AM PDT by Lancey Howard
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To: Lancey Howard

Slight correction - it wasn’t for “voting”, because the slaves couldn’t vote regardless of how they were counted.
It was for population based representation in the House of Representatives.


20 posted on 10/21/2013 8:12:58 AM PDT by MrB (The difference between a Humanist and a Satanist - the latter admits whom he's working for)
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To: Lancey Howard

Actually slaves didn’t get any vote at all. The place where the slave was located got more representatives for the slaves. Reality was most slaves were on larger plantations, within a single precinct, that gave the slave owner significant control over a representative.

Before 1835, North Carolina gave Freed slaves the vote. After 1835 (when they changed their state constitution) they denied black freedmen the vote.

Jim Crow was started by the Democrats in part to remove the vote from freedmen after the insurrection.


30 posted on 10/21/2013 8:22:22 AM PDT by donmeaker (q)
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