You have one comment that seemingly supports your point, and we have dozens that refute it. And you still have not addressed the fact that were Madison's offhand comment true, Slaves and Indians would have been citizens. They meet his criteria, but lo and behold they were not citizens! Your argument is rebuked by fact.
The alinskyesque tactics of this breed of axelsleazy insulters gives them away. They donn their obamanoid kneepads and gleefully march off to the Internet to defend their bastard pResident. At FR, we’ve addressed this same misdirection garbage so many times, it is not worth wasting time with these obaaaaamanoids. The owner of FR has stated unexquivocally that there are no Obama supporters at FR. Let them sleaze along until someone notices how obviously twisted they are.
Are you deliberately being obtuse? Indians were considered members of "sovereign" Indian nations (classified as "domestic dependent nations") so their citizenship was with their Indian "nation," which is also why the Constitution excluded them from taxes. It's also why if you visit the Navajo reservation in the Southwest, you will see you are visiting the "Navajo Nation." Note that current US Title 8 gives citizenship to "Any Indian or Eskimo born in the United States, provided being a citizen of the U.S. does not impair the person's status as a citizen of the tribe [emphasis added.]
Slaves, since they were property, did not have citizenship rights. (Do you know of any country where slaves were citizens with citizenship rights while still slaves?)
I again point out that by your logic, "“chosen every second Year by the People of the several States,” would be invalid since women could not vote and yet are of the people.
And I'm so glad you were physically present when James Madison gave his speech so you could attest that his "comment" was "offhand" instead of part of his prepared speech.