I love these threads when ‘strict’ evolutionists get into with ‘strict’ anti-evolutionists.
I have a simpler question.
Since chimps and humans DO have a non-matching chromosome set ... when the first ‘human’ was born with the human number and type of chromosomes ... and it reached the age of sexual maturity ... what did it mate with that had matching chromosomes (gametes actually) and could thus produce viable and fertile offspring?
I understand how the first ‘human’ could appear via a mutation. But as the first and only, how did it procreate without matching gametes out there?
Inquiring minds ...