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To: Lmo56
There are many states that declare elections null and void if fraud is proven

But the elections of November 2008 were for electors, not for Obama. Biden's election as VP was entirely free of fraud.

How could BIDEN be disqualified?

401 posted on 04/20/2010 9:03:26 PM PDT by Jim Noble (Let tyrants shake their iron rod, and slavery clank her galling chains)
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To: Jim Noble

Biden was chosen by Obama, and was elected as Vice-President under the assumption that Obama was eligible to act as President.


403 posted on 04/20/2010 9:06:24 PM PDT by LibertyRocks (http://libertyrocks.wordpress.com ~ Anti-Obama Gear: http://cafepress.com/NO_ObamaBiden08)
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To: Jim Noble
But the elections of November 2008 were for electors, not for Obama. Biden's election as VP was entirely free of fraud.

How could BIDEN be disqualified?

That is not the way it works. I live in MD - I will use it as an example:

MD has 10 electoral votes. Obama [and Biden] sign up 10 potential elector candidates. McCain [and Palin] sign up 10 different elector candidates. That is 20 people - but only 10 will go to the Electoral College.

Now, we have the election. Each voter casts 1 vote, but FOR 2 people. Winner takes all. In the case of MD, Obama/Biden. The 10 Obama/Biden electors go to the Electoral College - the 10 McCain/Palin electors stay home.

Now, Obama is in office, but lets say SCOTUS disqualifies him and declares the Electoral College count frauduent. The 10 electoral votes cast for Obama by MD are necessarily disqualified. Does that disqualify Biden's votes? Maybe. The SAME electors that cast votes for Obama ALSO cast the votes for Biden.

The reason for the problem lies in the deficiency created by the fact that each voter cast a single vote FOR 2 people. Can it be claimed that a voter WOULD NOT have voted DEM if Obama had NOT been at the top of the ticket in the first place? Maybe. Most people only vote the top of the ticket - and the VEEP candidate is along for the ride. If so, as a consequence, Biden's votes will be tainted. He could not say that he was elected in his own right.

The same problem was in the Constitution as originally written - and resulted in the 12th Amendment. Prior to that, each elector in the Electoral College voted for 2 candidates on a SINGLE ballot [1 for POTUS, 1 for VEEP]. The one with the most votes for POTUS won, and the one with most for VEEP won.

But, with Burr and Jefferson, they both had the same number of votes for POTUS AND the same number of votes for VEEP. The House of Representatives had to decide.

The 12th Amendment rectified the problem by splitting the ballot. One vote for POTUS only, one for VEEP - in SEPARATE ballots.

The way to correct this problem in the general election is to make a voter vote twice SEPARATELY - one for POTUS, one for VEEP. That way, each can claim that they were elected in their own right ...

443 posted on 04/20/2010 11:58:11 PM PDT by Lmo56
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