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To: a fool in paradise
For that matter, why should American “European” Hispanics (of Spanish heritage) get preferential treatment over other Americans of European ancestry?

Wait .. I'm not sure I get this... so ... if you are hispanic and they ask you what type you get the choices of:
  1. hispanic (european)
  2. hispanic (white)
  3. hispanic (non-white)
If I *am* understanding that correctly then what do they do about non-white hispanics from europe?
50 posted on 08/27/2009 1:31:11 PM PDT by TomOnTheRun
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To: TomOnTheRun
The Democrats created the artificial category of “Hispanics” in the 1970s as a way to create another class of victims, which they could imbue with special rights and privileges, including affirmative action and minority business set asides. The result is another minority group that votes Democrat. It doesn’t matter that, according to the Census Bureau, 51 percent of Hispanics self-identify themselves as white. The Census Bureau has even created the phony category of “non-Hispanic whites,” which are now 66 percent of the population and will be 50 percent in 2042. The reality is that “whites” will still be more than 70 percent of the population in 2042

Minorites are the beneficiaries of affirmative action and business set asides. For example, the Virginia Department of Minority Business defines a minority individual as “an individual who is a citizen of the United States or a non-citizen who is in full compliance with United States immigration law and who satisfies one or more of the following definitions:”

1.“African American” means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Africa and who is regarded as such by the community of which this person claims to be a part.

2. “Asian American” means a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, the Indian subcontinent, or the Pacific Islands, including but not limited to Japan, China, Vietnam, Samoa, Laos, Cambodia, Taiwan, Northern Mariana, the Philippines, a U.S. territory of the Pacific, India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, or Sri Lanka and who is regarded as such by the community of which this person claims to be a part.

3. “Hispanic American” means a person having origins in any of the Spanish-speaking peoples of Mexico, South or Central America, or the Caribbean Islands or other Spanish or Portuguese cultures and who is regarded as such by the community of which this person claims to be a part.

The Republicans need to expose the Democrats as the real racists and bigots who provide people, including newly arrived immigrants, with special rights and privileges based on race, ethnicity, and gender. The definitions of Hispanic and Asian under Virginia law are ludicrous. They make no sense. What do Japanese, Chinese, Indians, and Filipinos have in common except being from the same geographic region of the globe? Similarly, “Hispanics” encompass all of Latin America and the Iberian Peninsula, i.e., the former colonialists.

These types of classifications are reminiscent of those under apartheid in South Africa, which had four main groups with a number of sub-groups and even “honorary whites.” Republicans should take the lead in abolishing these discriminatory programs in post-racial America and use immigration as an example of the unfairness of these laws.

70 posted on 08/27/2009 1:52:37 PM PDT by kabar
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To: TomOnTheRun

No, you can check “all that apply”. There is no distinction drawn between european and non-european hispanic. As if people from Spain were more put upon than Italians, Poles, or Irish.


81 posted on 08/27/2009 2:08:34 PM PDT by a fool in paradise (Kennedycare?Recall that "Animal Farm" begins with a Socialist Revolution to honor Big Major's legacy)
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