This is not entirely true. The returning Jews (Zionists) purchased everything to which they acquired title. Nothing was taken by force. To be sure, during the war for Independence in 1948, and subsequent wars, some property was acquired through the use of force, though it could be argued that such acquisition was as the result of a defensive war. (E.g. the Golan Heights in 1967.) Even now the Arabs own plenty of land in Israel and except for roads and military purposes, the Arabs cannot lose this land unless they decide to sell it.
ML/NJ
I think you’re confusing private property title and sovereignty. The Jewish state acquired (or anyway kept) its independence and sovereignty by force of arms. This is quite a different issue from who owns a particular piece of land within the boundaries of the state thus established.
Are you suggesting thet if Israel had lost the war, they would have been allowed to keep the land thay had purchased?