Did the Nazi’s take control of the means of production within the state? Case closed.
Do Socialists deem other races [Mexicans, Afro-Americans] SUBHUMAN?
Case closed.
Actually, even though I don’t agree with the original poster, this is an interesting post. Your comment about NAZIS taking over the means of production needs to be elaborated on. From whhat I have read, the NAZIS unlike the Marxists (Stalinists by then), allowed private ownership, but basically manipulated those owners of corporations to do its bidding. It seems that a person was allowed to have personal capital and own private property unlike in collectivist Russia. In regard to race/ethnicity the NAZIS saw the Aryan/Nordic race as being superior. Communism in its essence is not racist, it’s a one world mindset. I think that what ever racism there was in the Soviet Union stemmed from pre-existing Russian biases. Same with every other communist regime that went after particular ethnic groups for eradication. The subject of homosexuality is an interesting from both the NAZI perspective and the Communist perspective. It was commonly known that the upper echclons of Hitler’s posse had many homo-erotic inclinations. There is stuff written on this. Even though they sent gays to the extermination camps they had this other stuff going on in private-—think of the type of super macho gay variant. Communists also have never been fond of homosexuals. It doesn’t stem so much from a moral perspective (obviously, but possibly from a psycho-social one. Maybe it was because they saw homosexuals as too self indulgent, individualistic, not going to procreate new workers to enhance the well being of the state-—whatever, commies weren’t all hot for homosexuality. I guess there is stuff written about this too.