Sure they would. Article III, Section 2, Clause 1: "The judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution, the Laws of the United States, and Treaties made, or which shall be made, under their Authority..."
By your explanation, apparently Texas got scr*wed, just like the Indians did.
I don't think that gives the Court the power to change the terms of a treaty AFTER THE FACT.