[Krodg]

Since the thread is quiet now, I would like to ask a question that is totaly off topic.

If a statement that said "did knowingly cause harm to another or another's unborn child" was in a police report, wouldn't that mean that defendant stated she was pregnant?

When questioned, the cop said that that was standard language on all assualts against women according to Ohio law.

My question is, where do I start my research?

I don't want to highjack a thread, so you can PM me if you can help.

Oops, I almost forgot...this was two teenaged girls who had a small fight. No damage now, but could lead to problems later.

[JLS]

If a statement that said "did knowingly cause harm to another or another's unborn child" was in a police report, wouldn't that mean that defendant stated she was pregnant?

To me that statement means the defendant knew that one victim of their crime was pregnant and thus knew their actions could harm the person and their child. But as I just said, I am not a lawyer.