[JLS]

If a statement that said "did knowingly cause harm to another or another's unborn child" was in a police report, wouldn't that mean that defendant stated she was pregnant?

To me that statement means the defendant knew that one victim of their crime was pregnant and thus knew their actions could harm the person and their child. But as I just said, I am not a lawyer.

[Krodg]

Thanks for your help. Would you mind if I pm'd you with a little more detail?