And because of this infraction alone, IF THEY ARE PROVEN TO HAVE BEEN PRESENT, then they have violated the law. A minor violation, certainly not a felony, but the law was broken by having alcohol in the presence of minors. All that aside, I think the DA using that as an extortion against the guys as an attempt to get information, is unethical and immoral.
Can that be?--I have alcohol in my home and I have kids. How can they charge anyone but the three captains (who lease the house) with serving?
Let me get this straight...Does this hold true for a parent drinking in front of a minor child?
I guess I am asking unless they did a blood alcohol level on them, they cannot prove the minors had been drinking (unless someone told). Sure, it is a valid assumption, but would that assumption carry weight in court? If one of them was of age and there is no LEGAL proof the others were drinking, it is still an infraction?
Very true, and I would make him prove each and every case. let him figure out who was there and who wasn't.