Posted on 01/11/2005 6:18:33 PM PST by malakhi
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There ISN'T any "context" here. It doesn't break down to a single hebrew word that is either "lion" or "pierced".
The question is whether the CURRENT Hebrew word is correctly put there. The manuscript evidence doesn't support that.
It's easy enough to answer "why would Christians change it", because the desire would be obvious. But you can't answer "why would the pre-christian JEWS change it?" - answer, they wouldn't. But the POST-Christ Jews have the same motivation to change the text that Christians would have (to support their argument). And this seems clearly to be what happened.
And you, obviously, favor a translation over the original.
Unfortunately for you... the DSS renders the verse WITH the word "pierced".
Not true. I've seen an image of the fragment in question. At best, one could say that the text of the fragment is ambiguous. It certainly doesn't give you the slam dunk you suppose.
The Hebrew word your translation would assume here for "pierce" doesn't really mean "pierce" in any case, but "dig" (in the sense of digging soil). The Hebrew word which says what you want this word to say is nkr:
Now, behold, thou trustest upon the staff of this bruised reed, even upon Egypt; whereon if a man lean, it will go into his hand, and pierce it (2 Kings 18:21)
The "Apocrypha" was never "in".
That you refuse to see it, despite ET and I showing it to you, doesn't make it disappear.
The manuscript evidence doesn't support that.
You'll cite "manuscript evidence" when it suits you, and reject it when it suits you.
Lions and tigers and bears .Oh my! LIONS AND TIGERS AND BEARS. OH MY!! lIO..............
Interestingly, the word "tiger" appears nowhere in scripture. :o)
A translation that PREDATES the "original"? I doubt it.
Why oh why would they add a word that didn't exist? Did the Jews who made the translation not read Hebrew? Or did they not understand Greek? Obviously men working PRIOR to the time of any possible theological disagreement understood the verse to mean "pierced".
And there are at least seven MT manuscripts that use k'rw and a couple without the aleph. We can discuss that part once you give up on the other point. It doesn't help your argument to spin both sides of the coin at the same time. :) Suffice to say that there are something like 15 Hebrew words that get translated as "pierced". They all have additional meanings.
Not true. I've seen an image of the fragment in question. At best, one could say that the text of the fragment is ambiguous.
The chief editor of the DSS at Qumran (and head Hebrew scholar at Notre Dame) seems to disagree with you. "Psalm 22 is a favorite among Christians since it is often linked in the New Testament with the suffering and death of Jesus. A well-known and controversial reading is found in verse 16, where the Masoretic Text reads 'Like a lion are my hands and feet,' whereas the Septuagint has 'They have pierced my hands and feet.' Among the scrolls the reading in question is found only in the Psalms scroll found at Nahal Hever (abbreviated 5/6HevPs), which reads 'They have pierced my hands and my feet'"!" [p.519]
Again I point out that this is not a single word. You must reconcile "like a lion" instead of "they" and at least SOME verb.
Gee... the Jews who didn't attend the meeting where it was removed seem to still use it. Maybe the Christians bribed them?
Feel free to cite ANY that fits. "Fits" in this case would be SOME manuscript that predates the argument. "The argument" in this case is whether the verse in question can refer to Christ. Anything created by either "side" COULD be presumed to be biased.
A manuscript created BY Jews FOR Jews that uses "they pierced" cannot be spun to be a Christian fabrication. Instead, we see Jews of the first couple centuries using variant forms of a changed manuscript. Their motivation is plain (and understandable)... but they hadn't gotten their story straight yet. Aquila (in the early second century) had it as "ashamed" or "disgraced" before changing it to "like a lion" in his second edition.
I was looking at Lent. Starts 40 days before Easter. Fasts varied from 3-7 weeks. Originally rigorous and only 1 meal a day permitted, without white meat,eggs, milk products and all type of flesh. It was gradually relaxed to only Good Friday and Ash Wed and the rest a time of penance and devotion. Tsk! Tsk!:')
Then a lot about Catholic ritualsp and service restictions. That about it?
I wouldn't have a problem with 40 days of "in the spirit" but I would have to back out of the organized fasting. I believe no one should know you are fasting and it may be something you feel led to do at anytime during the year. An interesing concept though and something to think about.
It should be obvious that the Greek translation doesn't predate the Hebrew scriptures. It is further obvious to anyone who has studied the history of the "septuagints" that there is nothing especially authoritative about them.
Why oh why would they add a word that didn't exist?
For the same reason that parthenos turned up in Isaiah 7:14. It is a translation.
Did the Jews who made the translation not read Hebrew?
Only the first five books were translated under anything resembling rabbinical direction. The whole was translated in Alexandria, a center of Greek study, not of Hebrew. So yes, I would say that the translators were not intimately familiar with Hebrew.
Suffice to say that there are something like 15 Hebrew words that get translated as "pierced".
The verse in question, in Psalm 22, is the only time in the entire translated Hebrew scriptures that this particular Hebrew word -- krh -- is translated as "pierced". Every other usage is translated as "digged" in the sense of digging a pit -- or of "making" a pit, (plus one single reference to "opening" one's ears).
The chief editor of the DSS at Qumran (and head Hebrew scholar at Notre Dame) seems to disagree with you.
And plenty of other scholars disagree with him. I've seen an image of the fragment in question. It is ambiguous.
You have never heard of the Tiger River? :')
???
Maybe the Christians bribed them?
Snide comments don't change the fact that, in two different ways, you are wrong on this.
We all must have played this game before. I keep getting deja vu. Spooky:')
Feel free to cite ANY that fits.
You want to cite "Apocrypha" and "manuscript evidence" when it favors your interpretation of Jewish scripture. Are you willing in turn to use Christian apocrypha and manuscript evidence in the same way? Can I cite, say, the "Gospel of Mary", the Pseudoclementines, and the "Epistle of Barnabas" as authoritative sources?
A manuscript created BY Jews FOR Jews
The Essenes did not represent "mainstream" Judaism. Their writings are filled with gnostic influences. I'd be very careful about trying to draw any conclusions about Judaism from the DSS.
You - Suffice to say that there are something like 15 Hebrew words that get translated as "pierced". They all have additional meanings.
You left out the Gospel of Thomas! ;)
There are hundreds.
But that one stands out. :)
I'm pretty sure that you have mentioned this before but I can't recall who it would be.
Is there someone other than Maimonides that you would turn to for commentary?
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