Actually, IIRC, Sudetenland was German territory before WWI, and the Weimar Republic no longer existed, so Hitler had a point, in that case.
The terms of WWI made Hitler’s rise to power possible.
Milking the Ukraine as a cash cow money laundry for Western corruptocrats, while breaking promises not to bring NATO to the Russian border, precipitated this war.
Once again, the corrupt Western elites miscalculated and innocent people die by the tens of thousands as a result.
Sudentenland was Imperial Austro-Hungarian i.e. Hapsburg territory before 1918
Just as the eastern seaboard of the USA was imperial British territory in the 1700s
It was not part of "Germany"
Furthermore, oldskoolwargamer2 said Imperial Germany ceased to exist in 1918. Areas of what became Poland were part of Imperial Germany. Imperial Germany became (briefly) the Weimar Republic and then the Third Reich. By your logic Adolf Hitler’s invasion of Poland was perfectly acceptable. --> Sudentenland became part of Czechoslovakia, not Poland, after 1918
The areas that were part of Imperial Germany and then became part of interwar Poland were the Poznan and other areas that had been "Polish" ethnically and were part of a Polish (well Polish-Lithuanian commonwealth) before the Prussians took it in 1791
Hitler's irredentist aims were nonsensical as these were dynastic kings that conquered lands and ruled them - like the Jurchen Manchus conquered Han China and vassalized Tibet, Inner Mongolia and xinjiang and now the Han Chinese try to claim the latter as part of "China"
only in the vaguest way -- Hitler tried his beer hall putsch in 1923 and it failed - spectacularly
The terms of WWI were a factor, but the bigger factors for Hitler's rise to power were (and this is corroborated by a number of historians, from William L Shirer onwards:
the terms of Versailles were accepted by the Germans by the late 1920s