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To: patlin

“So the questions begged to be answered are, why did the Roman Catholic Papacy use the name of a pagan god to define one of Christianity’s most important events?”

It didn’t you ignorant moron. Easter is a term used only in Germanic language speaking countries - whether Catholic or Protestant. The Catholic Church used the term “Pasch” = Passover.

The real hypocrisy here is that a sciolist moron is trying to pass herself off as somewhat learned when she is not.

“Why are Christians all over the globe today still celebrating this pagan event at home & in the Church when God rebuled these pagan religious traditions?”

Only a moron would suggest celebrating the resurrection of Christ is pagan.


3 posted on 04/23/2011 10:37:13 AM PDT by vladimir998 (Copts, Nazis, Franks and Beans - what a public school education puts in your head.)
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To: vladimir998; patlin
.... why did the Roman Catholic Papacy use the name of a pagan god to define one of Christianity’s most important events?”

It didn’t you ignorant moron. Easter is a term used only in Germanic language speaking countries - whether Catholic or Protestant. The Catholic Church used the term “Pasch” = Passover.

Free Republic needs a "like" button.

Generally I don't like such blunt disparagement of ignorant morons, but this is a classic anti-Catholic party-pooper argument advanced by those who think that history stopped around 100 AD and kicked back up in 1517.

It's truly astounding!

And the new anti-Catholic lexicon includes the word"hypocrisy" meaning apparent contradiction pertaining to something I not only don't know but am not interested in learning about.

The Epistle to the Hebrews refers to Baptism as enlightenment. We could stand a little light around here.

23 posted on 04/23/2011 12:06:28 PM PDT by Mad Dawg (Oh Mary, conceived without sin, pray for us who have recourse to thee.)
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To: vladimir998

That sums it up nicely.


30 posted on 04/23/2011 12:17:43 PM PDT by ejonesie22 (8/30/10, the day Truth won.)
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To: vladimir998

“Pasch = Passover”.

I believe the only time the word “Easter” appeared in the King James Version of the Bible was in Acts 12:4. But it shouldn’t be there. The word is translated from the Greek word pascha, which is properly translated as “Passover” 28 other times in the New Testament. I don’t know what the KJV translators were up to in mistranslating it as “Easter” in that place.

In celebrating communtion, let us remember the Lord’s death (Matthew 22:26-28) as He indicated and let us praise God that we serve a risen Savior!


80 posted on 04/23/2011 2:18:26 PM PDT by SharpRightTurn (White, black, and red all over--America's affirmative action, metrosexual president.)
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To: vladimir998
G3957 πάσχα (paskha) - the Passover (the meal, the day, the festival or the special sacrifices connected with it); Etymology: of Chaldee origin (compare H6453); KJV: Easter, Passover
97 posted on 04/23/2011 5:27:44 PM PDT by RaceBannon (Ron Paul is to the Constitution what Fred Phelps is to the Bible.)
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To: vladimir998
It didn’t you ignorant moron. Easter is a term used only in Germanic language speaking countries - whether Catholic or Protestant. The Catholic Church used the term “Pasch” = Passover.

You are correct and in Non-germanic language countries, Protestant or Catholic the season is referred to as Passover and it coincides with the Jewish Passover.

148 posted on 04/24/2011 3:23:30 PM PDT by Harmless Teddy Bear (Yesterday I meditated, today I seek balance. That was Zen, this is Tao.)
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To: vladimir998; it_ürür; Bockscar; Mary Kochan; Bed_Zeppelin; YellowRoseofTx; Rashputin; ...
Only a moron would suggest celebrating the resurrection of Christ is pagan.
:)
249 posted on 05/08/2011 10:39:18 AM PDT by narses ("Fallacies do not cease to be fallacies because they become fashions." Chesterton)
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