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To: 4ConservativeJustices
By your lights, secession is allowed because it is not specifically forbidden. Suspending the writ by the president is disallowed because it is not specifically made reference to. It is a double standard. It costs you all your credibility.

Nonsense. Secession is the act of a state, exercising reserved powers (that part if the Constitution you overlook).

Secession cannot be a reserved power because the Constitutition delegates to the Congress the power to provide for the common defense and general welfare. Unialteral state secession would be inimical to those interests.

Besides, no act, ordinance, resolution or statement of secession can have validity in law because it is a "thing" in the laws of a state that the Constitution clearly states cannot withstand the powers of the federal government.

Not only that, the Constitution also clearly states that the laws made in pursuance to the Constitution are also supreme, and one of those laws is the Militia Act of 1792 which requires that U.S. law operate in all the states.

You just look silly continuing with this crap.

This is another example where you disallow the most reasonable actions because you hate what they accomplished.

Even if the north had said good-bye and good riddance to the slave states, they couldn't ignore the fact that the so-called CSA was agressively arming itself. War was inevitable.

Suppose the rump USA passed an amendment that said "no state may leave the Union for any reason." That rump United States could still have slam dunked the so-called CSA any time they chose.

Don't forget that right after the first battle of Bull Run President Lincoln wrote out on one page some precepts that dis in fact bring the war to a successful conclusion. The idea of rebel military prowess is largely a myth.

Walt

1,403 posted on 12/04/2002 5:49:22 AM PST by WhiskeyPapa
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To: WhiskeyPapa
Secession cannot be a reserved power because the Constitutition delegates to the Congress the power to provide for the common defense and general welfare. Unialteral state secession would be inimical to those interests.

How does secession constitute an attack? The states delegated to the federal government certain powers, among them to provide for the common defense - meaning ALL states. If the Executive is charged with the common defense of the states - and held that the seceding states were still states - then he violated the Constitution (besides exercising non-delegated judicial powers) by not protecting them from invasion from the federal government. The federal government has no authority over Cuba, Canada or Mexico, nor over a seceded state.

Besides, no act, ordinance, resolution or statement of secession can have validity in law because it is a "thing" in the laws of a state that the Constitution clearly states cannot withstand the powers of the federal government.

You write some of the most idiotic statements. See Article IV. The Constitutution explicitly requires that "Full Faith and Credit shall be given in each State to the public Acts, Records, and judicial Proceedings of every other State."

1,425 posted on 12/04/2002 9:16:53 PM PST by 4CJ
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