The focus needs to be on the legality of what Biden has signed.....if he is not of sound mind, then nothing he has signed meets the threshold for a legally enforceable document, under Contract Law
So question for lawyers out there. Is the burden of proving ‘sound mind’ on the individual in question, or is the burden of proving not of sound mind on the accuser? I would have thought the burden of proof would be on the latter, but some googling gives me the impression its on the former.
“The focus needs to be on the legality of what Biden has signed.....if he is not of sound mind, then nothing he has signed meets the threshold for a legally enforceable document, under Contract Law”
The Constitution over rides contract law.