Many mainstream churches interpret that Biblical passage as referring rather to the Second Coming, to the establishment of His Kingdom on Earth after the Apocalypse - not merely to Christ's appearance after the Resurrection.
But if we accept YOUR interpretation, my original question still stands DOUBLY: Why would anyone refer to an event (like Christ's appearance to his disciples after the First Resurrection) as happening "when many of you standing here today will not yet have tasted Death?" - when it was, in fact, mere weeks away?
Can you imagine addressing a group of friends and neighbors in this way, referring to an important, much-hoped-for event destined to happen mere weeks in the future, as "happening before all of you are dead?"
Is that plausible?
Regards,
Not saying the above doesn't apply as well. Much meaning is condensed/locked away in scripture. His words to those that heard them that day were days later truly fulfilled in the simplest of minds.
If you wish to interpret deeper meaning, consider also if He is speaking of physical or spiritual death, or both.
I believe His words that day addressed all of the above.