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Pointing to the math, Clay Travis pontificates that perhaps England should be paying reparations to African Americans
PGA Weblog ^

Posted on 09/17/2022 1:15:01 PM PDT by ProgressingAmerica

I know this is a contentious issue for many, yet the fact that the United States did not exist prior to a certain date, is really hard to ignore. On the Tuesday broadcast, toward the end of the second hour, Clay said the following:

I've always been fascisnated, Buck, by the reparations argument in the United States in particular, because you know slavery was only legal in the United States for 80 years. A lot of people never actually do the math on it. United States was a country from 1783 until 1863 that allowed slavery to be permitted as an independent nation, 80 years. Most reparations for slavery would actually have to be paid by England because England was in charge of the United States colonies for the vast majority of our history.

....

You never hear anybody who advocates for reparations say ok, England is on the hook for 1619 to 1783, which is whatever the math is on that.

The podcast link is here, here, and the direct downloadable option is here. If you do download or listen to the podcast - and I really think you should, start listening around 35:25. Buck of course agreed to some extent, pointing out that in those years, Transatlantic slave trading was an English program and that it was spread by them and other European powers. Historically speaking, all of this commentary is correct. There's a lot more to it and as a citizen historian I would love to give you eighty thousand words on it, but I'm really intent on just saying "Here's what they said on the radio show, let's focus on the math, this is it" and a little knock against the progressives is probably sufficient too.

Now, for the record, I think that Clay is calling out the hypocrisy of progressives on this. I do not think he supports reparations, and so its said I don't support reparations either. But to say that the United States should pay reparations for when The Empire controlled the land and the plantations would make about as much sense to say that the United States should pay reparations to Jamaica in accordance to their leaders' wishes to receive reparation payments. Jamaica is another nation who is also calling for reparations.

Why would the United States pay reparations to Jamaica when the U.S. was not in control? That land was controlled by the Empire. Why should the United States pay reparations for anything prior to 1783? The Empire still claimed the land. That means they also claim the slavery. Even more clear-cut is prior to the Declaration. Everybody was a proud citizen of the British Empire. How is that slavery America's fault when the U.S. doesn't even exist in any way, shape, or form?

Progressives can't have it both ways on this.

Jamaica was wholly-owned by the British Empire. Prior to 1783, the 13 colonies were wholly-owned by the British Empire despite that war that was going on. I don't support reparations, but let's be real with ourselves. This responsibility falls on the Empire. This is very simple math. The United States is just not that old.

While progressives are liars, the math doesn't lie to you on this, just subtract the years and see what you come up with.


TOPICS: History
KEYWORDS: britishempire; reparations; rubbish; zot
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To: bobbo666
England already paid reparations. Did that and then in 1840ish started stamping it out across the world.

Did that cancel out what they did before? Or what they were going to do after?

The US had to do things a bit different because of its constitution. Other countries (like all of SAmerica) avoided the issue for as long as they could.

The Spanish-speaking republics had all abolished slavery by 1860 -- some early (Mexico, Bolivia, Central America, and Chile) and others later (only in the 1850s for much of the South America). The big exceptions were Portuguese-speaking Brazil and the Spanish colonies of Cuba and Puerto Rico. They had the most slaves and slaveowners and held out the longest (into the 1880s for Brazil and Cuba).

I thought all the South American republics abolished slavery when they became independent. That isn't true. Still, they did it before we did. However, in many places Indians and Blacks were still virtual slaves for a very long time after they were officially emancipated.

41 posted on 09/18/2022 3:19:50 PM PDT by x
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To: ProgressingAmerica

I’m 90% Irish, most of my ancestors coming to the US in the 1860’s. I deserve reparations from the the English Reavers


42 posted on 09/18/2022 3:35:51 PM PDT by frithguild (The warmth and goodness of Gaia is a nuclear reactor in the Earth's core that burns Thorium)
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To: FreedomPoster

He should have included “flush toilets and indoor plumbing” on his list.


43 posted on 09/19/2022 6:05:55 AM PDT by DuncanWaring (The Lord uses the good ones; the bad ones use the Lord.)
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To: ProgressingAmerica

I just don’t like him

Sports fans

I’ll take buck over him


44 posted on 09/19/2022 6:07:41 AM PDT by wardaddy (Sound and Fury Republic)
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To: ProgressingAmerica

I quit listening to them

Travis is woefully poorly prepared on facts

Sexton a bit better


45 posted on 09/19/2022 6:10:03 AM PDT by wardaddy (Sound and Fury Republic)
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To: CommerceComet

Karl Marx was saying the same thing when he wrote for Horace Republican party newspaper.


46 posted on 09/19/2022 10:44:18 AM PDT by Pelham (World War III is entering on cat's feet. )
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To: x

The British issued Dunmore’s Proclamation and the Philipsburg Proclamation during the Revolutionary War.

If King George had defeated that rebellion as successfully as Lincoln then American slavery would have ended sooner.


47 posted on 09/19/2022 10:50:21 AM PDT by Pelham (World War III is entering on cat's feet. )
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To: Pelham
What exactly did Karl Marx say? I would assume that he would be in favor of reparations as it would lead to a redistribution of wealth.

I said only those directly owning slaves should have to pay reparations and only those directly held as slaves should be eligible for reparations. In other words, no one who is alive today.

Sound principles of justice require only the guilty should have to pay and only those damaged by the crime should receive restitution. I really doubt that Karl Marx had any concern for real justice. Certainly, those who have practiced Marxism throughout history never have.

48 posted on 09/19/2022 11:01:34 AM PDT by CommerceComet ("You know why there's a Second Amendment? In case, the government forgets the first." Rush Limbaugh )
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To: CommerceComet

Marx was a vindictive moralizing abolitionist. His reasoning never mentioned redistribution of wealth.

A fan boy of Lincoln and the destrution of the South, although he faulted Lincoln for not being an abolitionist. Marx and Engels followed the war closely, they had a lot of friends among the 48ers in the early Republican party.


49 posted on 09/19/2022 12:16:45 PM PDT by Pelham (World War III is entering on cat's feet. )
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To: ProgressingAmerica

Most of the slaves were captured and sold into slavery by other Africans...

Yes the Europeans created the market to sell them, but europeans were not running around Africa capturing Africans to put into slavery... other African’s captured them and sold them to the slave traders.

Of course truthful facts are not politically correct, but are true.


50 posted on 09/19/2022 12:20:37 PM PDT by HamiltonJay
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To: BlackbirdSST; CommerceComet

Many New England fortunes were the result of operating slave ships.


51 posted on 09/19/2022 12:21:31 PM PDT by Pelham (World War III is entering on cat's feet. )
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To: ProgressingAmerica

Saturday, September 17, 2022
Pointing to the math, Clay Travis pontificates that perhaps England should be paying reparations to African Americans.

I know this is a contentious issue for many, yet the fact that the United States did not exist prior to a certain date, is really hard to ignore. On the Tuesday broadcast, toward the end of the second hour, Clay said the following:

I’ve always been fascinated, Buck, by the reparations argument in the United States in particular, because you know slavery was only legal in the United States for 80 years.

A lot of people never actually do the math on it. United States was a country from 1783 until 1863 that allowed slavery to be permitted as an independent nation, 80 years. Most reparations for slavery would actually have to be paid by England because England was in charge of the United States colonies for the vast majority of our history.

https://progressingamerica.blogspot.com/2022/09/pointing-to-math-clay-travis.html


52 posted on 09/19/2022 6:36:32 PM PDT by Grampa Dave (Anyone, who can make you believe in absurdities, can make you commit atrocities.!" ~ (Voltaire)!, )
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To: Pelham; x; DiogenesLamp; wardaddy; LS
This is actually a really old false narrative, but its not true as it's resting on extremely tenuous bits of information. The Empire and later British historians have been trying to claim that they invented transatlantic abolitionism for over two centuries, but even Benjamin Franklin had to nicely swat down the claim. (source: Papers of Frankl.) The legend goes that Granville Sharp is the first in line for abolitionism and Wilberforce and Clarkson pick it up from there. Then, eventually, America. Sharp is a great read, he did great things, he was a great man, but he got a lot of his ideas from the colonies and he openly wrote that. The timeline matters.

It gets me in a lot of trouble when I say it, but the facts are in. By not letting the colonies pass the laws that they wanted, the Empire forced slavery on the United States. I don't care who it offends, I'll say it every time. The Empire forced slavery on the United States. They should not have negatived those colonial laws and they do deserve criticism for it.

Dunmore's, Philipsburg, and also the Somersett case have all achieved legendary status based purely on revisionist history. Franklin, (again) ironically enough, also swats down the perch that Somersett is usually placed on.(Source: Papers of Frankl.)

The colonies had abolitionism first. That's wholly American. Our obstructed laws and the timeline also prove it.

Abolitionism, We did that before Britain. Americans were on the right side. America is the shining city on the hill. Always will be. America deserves the credit. And the documentation proves it.

The revisionism that exists right here, we're looking right at it. This right here is a big part of how the racial narrative that fuels the progressives and their despicable 1619 Project can easily be de-railed. They want the world to think that there was no abolitionism in the 13 colonies/United States until the U.S. followed Britain's lead in the 1830s. Bovine excrement.

America had abolitionism first and the 1619ists can go stuff it. It is a malfunction to give the Empire credit for what the Colonists/Americans were doing. If that makes me an apologist for the U.S.A. Good.

Because of the Empire's actions, white America and Black America actually have common cause, but because progressives control history they've erased it all and the progressives have weaponized that erasure to tear us apart.

53 posted on 09/20/2022 7:34:12 AM PDT by ProgressingAmerica (A man's rights rest in 3 boxes. The ballot box, jury box and the cartridge box.- Frederick Douglass)
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To: ProgressingAmerica

Yep. Both the Declaration (”all men”) and the Constitution (which does not recognize “slaves” but “PERSONS”) attest to this.


54 posted on 09/20/2022 7:44:46 AM PDT by LS ("Castles made of sand, fall in the sea . . . eventually" (Hendrix) )
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