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To: philman_36

Again from study notes-

Genesis 10:25 (just the study notes)

(Shem was in the lineage of the Promised Seed, so out of Shemultimatly sprang Jesus, the Plant of Renown [Ezek. 34:29; Lk. 3:36]. The Earth being divided in the days of Peleg refers to the time of the Tower of Babel, and the confusion of the languages by God. The name “peleg” means “division.” It refers here to language being divided, rather then land being divided.)


35 posted on 02/20/2021 1:11:50 PM PST by patriot torch (Ashlie Babbitt-say her name)
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To: patriot torch
It refers here to language being divided, rather then land being divided.
Believe as you will. The earth being divided isn't the same as people being scattered. Look up the words in a Concordance.

Genesis 11
5 And the Lord came down to see the city and the tower, which the children of men builded.
6 And the Lord said, Behold, the people is one, and they have all one language; and this they begin to do: and now nothing will be restrained from them, which they have imagined to do.
7 Go to, let us go down, and there confound their language, that they may not understand one another's speech.
8 So the Lord scattered them abroad from thence upon the face of all the earth: and they left off to build the city.
9 Therefore is the name of it called Babel; because the Lord did there confound the language of all the earth: and from thence did the Lord scatter them abroad upon the face of all the earth.

It seems to me that you're trying to force something to your liking, not to what the Bible says.
Again, believe as you will. I will post to you no more about it.

40 posted on 02/20/2021 1:34:10 PM PST by philman_36 (Pride breakfasted with plenty, dined with poverty and supped with infamy. Benjamin Franklin)
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"Language being divided" -- historical linguistics is a particular hobby horse of mine.

I'd suggest

The thing is that one can trace back the Indo-European language tree (containing indic, iranic, slavic, armenian, celtic, germanic,italic, etc. families) backwards to have a common origin around 4000 BC to the Kushan region - because if you look at Sanskrit, Avestani, Aeolian Greek and Anatolian languages you see similarities - with 7 to 8 cases and with 3 genders in nouns, pronouns, etc.

The only "touch point" similarities with other languages they have is slightly with Finno-Ugric and slightly with Hurrian languages

Afro-Asiatic languages are even more ancient

Dating to 9000 BC at least

Dravidian has fascinated me lately - especially as it seems to have similarities with Elamite (south-eastern Iran language before indo-european) and with Sumerian AND to me with Kartvelian and Basque (unproven - just my guesses as they are all agglutinative languages)

94 posted on 02/24/2021 2:57:04 AM PST by Cronos
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