American legislatures were attempting to get rid of slavery as early as 1765, Massachusetts. Governor Hutchinson vetoed it. They vetoed several anti-slavery laws.
Is that America’s fault or Britain’s fault?
Is that America’s fault or Britain’s fault?
I won't mention the fact that Hutchinson wasn't Governor of Massachusetts in 1765.
England ended the institution of slavery in 1772. Slavery continued in Massachusetts until 1781.
"Without resorting to implication in constructing the constitution, slavery is ... as effectively abolished as it can be by the granting of rights and privileges wholly incompatible and repugnant to its existence." Commonwealth v. Jennison (1781)
Now what was the point you were making?