Is that America’s fault or Britain’s fault?
I won't mention the fact that Hutchinson wasn't Governor of Massachusetts in 1765.
England ended the institution of slavery in 1772. Slavery continued in Massachusetts until 1781.
"Without resorting to implication in constructing the constitution, slavery is ... as effectively abolished as it can be by the granting of rights and privileges wholly incompatible and repugnant to its existence." Commonwealth v. Jennison (1781)
Now what was the point you were making?
The law originated in 1765, and took some time to be acted on.
By that time, yes, Hutchinson was indeed governor. I forgot to mention one piece.
“England ended the institution of slavery in 1772.”
Not true. England England ended the institution of slavery in England in 1772. And Benjamin Franklin was pissing mad because of it.
https://founders.archives.gov/documents/Franklin/01-19-02-0128
“Can sweetening our tea, &c. with sugar, be a circumstance of such absolute necessity? Can the petty pleasure thence arising to the taste, compensate for so much misery produced among our fellow creatures, and such a constant butchery of the human species by this pestilential detestable traffic in the bodies and souls of men? Pharisaical Britain! to pride thyself in setting free a single Slave that happens to land on thy coasts, while thy Merchants in all thy ports are encouraged by thy laws to continue a commerce whereby so many hundreds of thousands are dragged into a slavery that can scarce be said to end with their lives, since it is entailed on their posterity!”
Benjamin Franklin was correct. That’s the point I was making and will continue to make.