If the testing on cells from culture was performed on cells derived from an aborted individual, and then that testing was used for development using cells disparate or separate, then the extended result is not one of physical participation in innocent bloodshed, but a participation in principle nonetheless. Does that make sense? I’m not into making unjust accusations, but am obligated to make ethical considerations.
While I have my own opinion, I respect the opinions and individual judgments each person is entitled to make.