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To: DiogenesLamp
They would have a vote because Lincoln and his supporters would insist they have a vote because it would bolster the point that they remained part of the Union.

LOL! But by this time the seven original Confederate states were claiming they were an independent country. And you're suggesting Lincoln would force them to vote on an amendment to a constitution they no longer believed they were bound by? And than makes sense to you?

Was it more pro-slavery than the US constitution? Not that I recall.

Your recollection is faulty then. It specifically protected slave imports. It specifically mandated slavery in any territory the Confederacy might acquire. It specifically prohibited any laws that impaired the right in owning slaves. If specifically prohibited states from passing laws preventing slaves from being brought in. By implication it prohibited any future amendment ending slavery. All those 'additions' protected slavery to an extent the Corwin amendment never dreamed of and far more than the U.S. Constitution did.

By placing them out of the Union, you are verifying their claim that they are.

They are the ones who claimed to be out of the Union. How could they be forced to vote to ratify the amendment?

I think you are referring to what actually became the 13th amendment.

Which is what I clearly stated.

878 posted on 01/21/2020 12:51:58 PM PST by DoodleDawg
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To: DoodleDawg
LOL! But by this time the seven original Confederate states were claiming they were an independent country.

If they voted to pass the amendment, that would have been proof that they were not. If slavery was all they were after, then that would have given it to them, would it not?

Your recollection is faulty then. It specifically protected slave imports.

So did the US Constitution until 1808.

It specifically mandated slavery in any territory the Confederacy might acquire.

Which is what all the slave states thought would be the norm when the US Constitution was ratified. That's exactly what they thought they were getting when they ratified it.

It specifically prohibited any laws that impaired the right in owning slaves.

Article IV, section II.

No person held to service or labor in one state, under the laws thereof, escaping into another, shall, in consequence of any law or regulation therein...

Nullifies all state laws that would free escaped slaves.

If specifically prohibited states from passing laws preventing slaves from being brought in.

That's just a rewording of exactly the same thing.

By implication it prohibited any future amendment ending slavery.

Lincoln almost got that added to the US constitution by fact, not implication. He stated often that the constitution did in fact already mean that.

All those 'additions' protected slavery to an extent the Corwin amendment never dreamed of and far more than the U.S. Constitution did.

They only made the point more explicitly than did the US Constitution, but they added nothing in scope to what it already said. The drafters of the US Constitution tried to hide it's pro slavery components by couching them in euphemisms. The Confederate constitution simply stated the same thing more plainly.

They are the ones who claimed to be out of the Union. How could they be forced to vote to ratify the amendment?

They wouldn't have to be forced to vote for it if this amendment was giving them what you and others keep repeating that they wanted.

881 posted on 01/21/2020 3:21:45 PM PST by DiogenesLamp ("of parents owing allegiance to no oither sovereignty.")
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