If they voted to pass the amendment, that would have been proof that they were not. If slavery was all they were after, then that would have given it to them, would it not?
Your recollection is faulty then. It specifically protected slave imports.
So did the US Constitution until 1808.
It specifically mandated slavery in any territory the Confederacy might acquire.
Which is what all the slave states thought would be the norm when the US Constitution was ratified. That's exactly what they thought they were getting when they ratified it.
It specifically prohibited any laws that impaired the right in owning slaves.
Article IV, section II.
No person held to service or labor in one state, under the laws thereof, escaping into another, shall, in consequence of any law or regulation therein...
Nullifies all state laws that would free escaped slaves.
If specifically prohibited states from passing laws preventing slaves from being brought in.
That's just a rewording of exactly the same thing.
By implication it prohibited any future amendment ending slavery.
Lincoln almost got that added to the US constitution by fact, not implication. He stated often that the constitution did in fact already mean that.
All those 'additions' protected slavery to an extent the Corwin amendment never dreamed of and far more than the U.S. Constitution did.
They only made the point more explicitly than did the US Constitution, but they added nothing in scope to what it already said. The drafters of the US Constitution tried to hide it's pro slavery components by couching them in euphemisms. The Confederate constitution simply stated the same thing more plainly.
They are the ones who claimed to be out of the Union. How could they be forced to vote to ratify the amendment?
They wouldn't have to be forced to vote for it if this amendment was giving them what you and others keep repeating that they wanted.
So you think they would have called off their secession and returned to vote on the Corwin Amendment? And you call my arguments silly?
So did the US Constitution until 1808.
No, protection was implied.
Nullifies all state laws that would free escaped slaves
But does not specifically prohibit Congress from passing laws impairing the right to own slaves.
That's just a rewording of exactly the same thing.
Nonsense.
Lincoln almost got that added to the US constitution by fact, not implication. He stated often that the constitution did in fact already mean that.
LOL! Hardly 'almost'. In any case the Confederacy already had it in their constitution.
They only made the point more explicitly than did the US Constitution, but they added nothing in scope to what it already said
Which makes me wonder if you have ever read the Corwin amendment, the Confederate constitution, or the U.S. Constitution.
They wouldn't have to be forced to vote for it if this amendment was giving them what you and others keep repeating that they wanted.
But it wouldn't. Their constitution would. So why cancel their secession?
What would give them they idea that all new territory would have slavery when the founding fathers outlawed slavery in the northwest territory?