Sadly, jeffersondem can only accept whatever "expertise" I might have if it can be made to sound like I agree with him -- this case in point.
Here jdsteel made a perfectly valid observation -- there were no Republican slaveholders, certainly not in the Confederacy.
Indeed, there were very few Republicans in the South, period -- none voting in the Deep or Upper South.
In Border States & regions (i.e., western VA) Republicans averaged about 1% of the vote, except Missouri with 10% and Delaware with 24%.
And Delaware, with the fewest numbers of slaves and slaveholders is where history finds our famous Republican slaveholder -- an abolitionist named Benjamin Burton.
Burton hoped to achieve emancipation in Delaware by the same method as already used in Washington, DC -- gradual & compensated.
Lincoln hoped that same method could be applied nationally.
Their plan called for higher compensation in Delaware than in Washington, but perhaps not high enough, because Delaware's legislature defeated the proposal, twice.
So Delawareans were forced to accept abolition without compensation in December 1865, upon ratification of the 13th Amendment.
After the Civil War, Congress compensated thousands of Southern Unionists millions of dollars for damages they suffered.
Had abolitionist Burton's plan proved successful in Delaware, it may have become the pattern for also compensating slaveholders in Union states, though it's impossible to say now if that was enough to change history.
Benjamin Burton = Delaware abolitionist Republican slaveholder, supported compensated emancipation.
But Brother jdsteel’s observation (post 502) was not valid.
Said he: “I have heard many times that there was not one Whig or Republican slave owner owned slaves at the time of the Civil War. Since I know how to use a search engine I found many sources to confirm that.” (sic)
I'm not sure why you want to make an even bigger deal of his error. In the excitement, he probably made a simple mistake.