I would think the prenuptial was a legally binding document, but I don’t know how the courts view these things.
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They divorced and remarried, so she says she should get half the money he made since they remarried.
Right...
I understand that.
If she hadn’t signed the prenup, I suppose that would be reasoned.
I’m not an attorney, and I don’t study this issue all that much.
If others disagree, they may be right.