I’ve had people argue about what the Bible says with me who have never sat and actually read the Greek and/or Hebrew! As if one could begin to understand what the writers were saying without knowing what the words meant in the original language :-(
Unfortunately, even reading the original language carries a degree of ambiguity.
Unless the reader is conversant enough in the original language to know, for example, the English word “butterfly” has nothing to do with dairy products, their knowledge only reinforces exactly what the article describes.
I wonder how many Scriptorians that follow your method can explain exactly why the same exact word they see in Strong’s is translated into one English word in this context, and a barely tangentially related English word in that?