The Europeans were content to let us owe them the differential. I'm sure there was interest charged on the balance, or some such.
Lets see if we can agree on one thing, at least.
We have no specific data on who ultimately paid import tariffs, correct? We have numbers for total exports and total imports, numbers for Southern and Northern exports, total tariff revenues and tariffs collected by port of entry, but we do not have numbers that tell us directly who paid import duties at the time of entry nor where those goods were ultimately sold within our borders.
Any such estimation must be based on inference drawn from available data. Would you agree with that?