Why does the mention of “Domestic insurrections” mean it is limited to the months before July, 1776?
This sounds like an arbitrary time frame of your invention, not Jefferson's or the signers of the DOI.
Jefferson wrote in the DOI of “a long Train of Abuses.” Jefferson said the king “has refused for a long Time” to cause others . . .
Jefferson said “Our repeated Petitions have been answered only by repeated Injury.” This sounds like long-term grievances, not something that was limited to months before July, 1776.
We know the hated Stamp Act was passed in 1765. And the hated Tea Act in 1773.
What is your purpose in trying to limit the scope of grievances to just a few months in 1776? And how is it justified?
The quote from your post #284 is: "“HE has excited domestic Insurrections amongst us . . .”"
That can only refer to the time period of the Revolutionary War from, say, mid-1775 to July 1776.
You disagree?
jeffersondem: "What is your purpose in trying to limit the scope of grievances to just a few months in 1776? And how is it justified?"
Since you are here to argue that "domestic insurrections" refers to slave revolts "excited" by King George, perhaps you can name some North American slave revolts the King "excited" in any year before 1776?