Nor, just as obviously, did Jefferson refer to non-existent slave revolts.
My entire argument is that Jefferson must be referencing events actually happening in 1776, such as loyalists "domestic violence" against local patriot governments, but not referencing non-existent slave revolts.
And this is hard for you to accept because?
You now want to move the goal post to “domestic violence?”
Please post any sources you have that support your earlier claim that Jefferson's reference to domestic insurrection in the DOI refers to loyalists or Indians.