I fully understand the context, and also fully understand that there were many people at the time of the Civil War (and even, to a much lesser extent, at the time of the Declaration) understood that the Declaration does not say that all Citizens have inalienable rights, but rather that all Men have inalienable enable rights, and therefore that chattel slavery was fundamentally incompatible with the ideals set forth in the Declaration. This is not a revisionist concept.
The document is logically structured as the justification for specific peoples in specific colonies to rise on their own behalf. (See Declaration Of Independence--With Study Guide.) It is so far from being a cry for Abolitionism, that it lists among the grievances, efforts to stir up a servile rebellion. (And if you are familiar with Jefferson's other writings, you will understand why he would not have urged Abolitionism at that point in time.)
This view is incompatible with the facts. Jefferson and Washington both owned slaves. If they intended for the words in the Declaration to apply to slaves, they would have freed their own before or quickly after the creation of the document.
I think Jefferson *wanted* it to be inspirational and apply to all men, but his flowery language does not trump the will and reality of the actual understood meaning.