[idov]

How the word was applied a few hundred years later would parallel changes in meanings of many words over that period of time.

When the numskulls translated the Torah they confronted the word “anointed” eight times, twice in reference to the patriarchs and six times in reference to the high priest. What they used the first time they just followed suit. The word was then coined then in Greek and what happened later in its development and application is a subject for etymologists.

That translation was regarded by contemporary Jews as a joke book.

[roamer_1]

That translation was regarded by contemporary Jews as a joke book.

You might like to consider that the Protestants and their fellows make little use of the Septuagint - Their Old Testament Scriptures derive from the Masoretic tradition... From the Hebrew.

[redleghunter]

When the numskulls translated the Torah they confronted the word “anointed” eight times, twice in reference to the patriarchs and six times in reference to the high priest. What they used the first time they just followed suit. The word was then coined then in Greek and what happened later in its development and application is a subject for etymologists.

Well there is no difference. David was anointed king of Israel by Samuel and Samuel used a flask of oil and poured it over David. That is how YHWH of the Hebrew scriptures signified His covenant with David as king. So we have no mistranslation of the Greek Jews in the LXX. No misunderstanding of what it MEANT in Jesus' time either. So your point is lost as "they" knew what it meant. And if you really want to do some research on how the Hebrew and Aramaic languages developed from Sinai to the second temple, then study this a bit and let me know where you find 'anointed':

Hebrew Research Center