There are many, many complex factors that go into violent crime and guns death statistics. It’s all a very interesting topic to research, but I’ve noticed that taken in its totality, not in selectively-cut segments as we typically see in the news, is that the overall violent crime rates are not really affected one way or another by rates of private firearm ownership.
That sounds real to me.
When you think about it, it's the criminal class that is responsible for crime - therefore, why would the rate of gun ownership among the law-abiding affect what criminals do in any way?
One could say that there are liable to be less armed robberies and home invasions in areas where the populace is heavily armed, but that wouldn't necessarily affect other types of crime rates.