Need some help, here, folks. I understand the German and Italian ships being seized on a pretext. The US had pretty much quit pretending to be neutral by this point. But what would be a legal basis for seizing the large number of Danish ships? The Danish king is still on the throne, but hasn’t thrown in with the Germans present in his country.
That’s a good question PAR35. I can only say that perhaps this falls under the “secure such vessels from damage or injury” clause in the law. They could use this as a pretense to board and ensure that there are no Italian or German personnel on the ship. The Danes did readily succumb to the Nazi’s and have been one of their better occupied territories so there is reason to be a bit more suspicious of them.