What's the point of using 60μmolar concentrations, when such a quantity is never found in vivo? Are they attempting to mimic the overdosing approach used to assess toxicity, but looking for salubrious effects?
Cheers!
7 posted on 12/23/2010 8:27:44 PM PST by grey_whiskers
(The opinions are solely those of the author and are subject to change without notice.)