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To: colorado tanker; hellbender; SunkenCiv; muawiyah
Correction*: If they had been “invaders*”, the ANI* (Indo-Europeans) would have wiped out the native ASI population (as was the case with European migration of north America) rather then allow large amounts of genetic flow between. Also they would have imposed their own Indo-European language and a rigid class/caste structure right away. Instead traces of Dravidian language family survives in places as far away as Iran and among Brahuis in north western Pakistan.
37 posted on 09/24/2009 1:13:57 PM PDT by Rookie Cookie
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To: Rookie Cookie
Alas, the European migration to the Americas was not the cause of the destruction of the American Indians ~ rather, the hanta virus and a couple of other deadly diseases did the job.

The Europeans didn't even bring hanta virus with them ~ it was indigenous and is still a risk to everybody living in the Western hemisphere.

The primary reason Europeans purchased slaves from Africans was to REPOPULATE the agricultural regions in South and Central America as rapidly as possible to create wealth.

Those regions were not pristine jungle that'd never known the plough. Most of it had been good farmland and it was returned to that purpose through the hard work of African people who could resist the heat, humidity and to some degree the diseases (e.g. malaria).

BTW, that's just the most recent European migration. The people who became the Sa'ami and the Berbers in the old world were migrating to North America as early as 17,000 years ago when there were still vast Ice sheets over the continent and the ocean was hundreds of feet lower. They created the Clovis culture.

Now, in India, the Indo-European invaders arrived much earlier than is generally thought ~ and became part of the founding population, not just an add on. That's why it's so difficult to identify the Persian invaders of the Vedic period ~ they were simply the same folks as an earlier group.

40 posted on 09/24/2009 1:53:28 PM PDT by muawiyah
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To: Rookie Cookie
Very interesting that Dravidian language survives in Iran & Pakistan. I'd like to learn more about that, if you can supply some references.

As for invaders wiping out indigenous people, that may have happened to a large extent in the U.S. and Canada, but certainly not farther south. The population of Mexico and many other "Latin" American countries is mixed, with a heavy admixture of indigenous Indian blood. Yet the language is Indo-European (Spanish) for most of these people. So Latin America provides an excellent model of how invasion and conquest could change language and introduce social stratification without exterminating the native people. I think that is what happened in India, and probably in many other places, like Britain, for example.

63 posted on 09/25/2009 11:02:36 AM PDT by hellbender
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