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To: Tax-chick
First, Joseph charged the fellahin cash for the stored grain. Then he took their farm animals in trade. Then he made them sign over their land to the government, thus eliminating secure private ownership of land in Egypt up to the present day.

He purchased their land in exchange for food (business). He didn't seize it by edict (Obama and the U.S. government). Besides, you've made a bit of an error here. Signing over land in one's possession now isn't the same as signing over all land one might possess in the future or signing away one's ability to ever possess land.
35 posted on 07/18/2009 7:19:20 AM PDT by aruanan
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To: aruanan
He purchased their land in exchange for food (business). He didn't seize it by edict (Obama and the U.S. government).

He WAS the government. And he'd originally aquired the food by confiscation from the farmers during the boom years.

Signing over land in one's possession now isn't the same as signing over all land one might possess in the future or signing away one's ability to ever possess land.

Maybe not in theory, but that's pretty much what has happened in Egypt.

36 posted on 07/18/2009 7:23:48 AM PDT by Tax-chick (If I can do it, it can't be that hard!)
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