What isn't a surprise to me is your penchant to dance and wiggle around the facts. Let's review the original question and your response:
(over3.....) Tell me, is the pope's infallibility merely "cultural" too?
And your response: "No I believe it is scriptural (Luke 10:16, Matt. 18:18)."
Please note the question specifically stated the infallibility of the Pope. Your response was to that specific question.
Your dancing and spinning that it includes the Magisterium fools no one.
Pay attention! ;-)
Your dancing and spinning that it includes the Magisterium fools no one.
Pay attention! ;-)
That is the manner in which I argue. The question of Papal Infallibility requires an understanding of the doctrine of infallibility in the Magisterium. As I said they are linked, but they are technically separate questions. Once you demonstrate the nature of infallibility in the teaching authority of the Church, the specific infallibility of the head of that teaching authority who was commanded by Christ to "Confirm the faith of your brothers," becomes a little more obvious.
I was employing a form of reverse socratic method of argumentation. I was setting up an argument for the scriptural nature of the Pope's infallibility by getting over30 to ask the right questions (i.e. “But that would not specifically apply to one man but the whole group of apostles, not Peter specifically.”)
I can set up an arguments any way I wish. Your complaint of my method doesn't disprove my point that the infallibility of the Pope, is connected to the infallibility of all the Magisterium which IS scriptural. Thus, the Pope's special Charism of infallibility is really just a logical outgrowth of the need for unity amongst the Princes of the Church, and attested to by Christ in other parts of the Bible. It might be said that the Pope's infallibility rests on the infallibility of the Magisterium, however that infallibility rests on unity of the Bishops with the Pope.