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That time Charlie Kirk recognized abolitionism among the Founders
PGA Weblog ^ | September 18th, 2025

Posted on 09/18/2025 11:12:48 AM PDT by ProgressingAmerica

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https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=vTswW9dg07A

I link to the video in the third paragraph but here it is again.

Charlie Kirk Debates Bernie Sanders’ Press Secretary on Systemic Racism

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=vTswW9dg07A

I think that I'm doing what many other people have been doing over the past week and will continue to do so. Kirk's debates are amazing to watch. Its no wonder they wanted him gone.

1 posted on 09/18/2025 11:12:48 AM PDT by ProgressingAmerica
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To: fella; Glad2bnuts; ebshumidors; nicollo; Kalam; IYAS9YAS; laplata; mvonfr; ...

Ping to just my ping list, maybe you might have similar thoughts.

So it is said (I’m still having more new thoughts) It would be good to watch more than just the tiny clips referenced and also more than just the 5 minutes generally highlighted.

But its an embedded topic and it needed to be highlighted separately.


2 posted on 09/18/2025 11:15:55 AM PDT by ProgressingAmerica (We cannot vote our way out of these problems. The only way out is to activist our way out.)
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To: ProgressingAmerica

Slavey became so common for European colonial empires. I should add that slavery had been all but eliminated in Europe thanks to the power of Christianity. However larger more centralized monarchies reintroduced slavery in their colonies or permitted their overseas vassals to practice it because it was beneficial.

Slavery always happens because wealthy connected legal bodies recognize they can make even more money by controlling the human side of labor as property.

Its one of the legitimate reasons for having legal restrictions by government against slavery and its practices.


3 posted on 09/18/2025 11:21:08 AM PDT by Bayard
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To: ProgressingAmerica

You keep reiterating that “the 3/5ths compromise was anti-slavery.” No, it wasn’t. It also wasn’t pro-slavery (although it’s been heavily criticized by people horrified by slavery). What was it actually? It was, duh, a compromise.

The issue was how to compute House of Representatives memberships for states where many of the residents were slaves. The slave states wanted the slaves counted in full. Agreeing to that solution would have been pro-slavery.

The free states pointed out that, under the slave states’ own laws, slaves were property. They asked “Should our horses and cows be counted?” They wanted the slaves excluded. That solution would have been anti-slavery.

What emerged was the well-known 3/5 rule. It was a compromise. Neither side got everything it wanted. It’s misleading to focus on the rejection of the complete pro-slavery position without also acknowledging the rejection of the complete anti-slavery position.


4 posted on 09/18/2025 11:28:21 AM PDT by Eagle Forgotten
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To: Eagle Forgotten

The point was that unless the abolitionists had fought it, the hypocritical slave owners would have been successful in getting slaves counted as full persons for the purposes of political apportionment, giving slave states greater power. The abolitionists fought to not have slaves counted as persons if they weren’t going to be allowed to vote anyway. Not because they thought they were not persons, but because all the power from their numbers went to the slavers oppressing them.


5 posted on 09/18/2025 12:01:16 PM PDT by EnderWiggin1970
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To: Bayard

The Virginia House voted to abolish slavery a generation prior to the Revolutionary War but the British Crown vetoed the act.


6 posted on 09/18/2025 12:09:58 PM PDT by KC Burke
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To: ProgressingAmerica; Eagle Forgotten

The effect of the compromise was ant-slavery because a whole free black person or indentured servant could be added to the census as Northern states did for representation. Southern states could add only six tenths of a person for a slave.


7 posted on 09/18/2025 12:10:06 PM PDT by Retain Mike ( Sat Cong)
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To: Eagle Forgotten

Trying to understand how mere head counts, or split head counts, makes a statement of ethical nature toward the practice of slavery.

It was disingenuous to consider them property for all but a head count, but treating them as whole persons even to that extent strikes me as tacitly anti-slavery.

There is good reason I am not an attorney.


8 posted on 09/18/2025 12:36:58 PM PDT by Fester Chugabrew (Are you now, or have you ever been, a Democrat?)
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To: Eagle Forgotten
The free states pointed out that, under the slave states’ own laws, slaves were property. They asked “Should our horses and cows be counted?” They wanted the slaves excluded. That solution would have been anti-slavery.
Actually, it was under the Articles of Confederation that slaves were considered property for tax purposes. The system was so unsatisfactory due to undervaluations that in 1783 a proposal was made to base the tax apportionment on population not property. (The 3/5 Compromise entry on Wikipedia gets this wrong...) At that time, the northern states wanted to count slaves, as it would increase the population counts thus raising the tax contributions of slave states. The 3/5ths count per slave was the compromise solution, but the law failed due to two states, NY and NH, voting against it.

The exact same language from 1783 was used in the Constitutional Congress, only the debate was switched from northern states wanting to count slaves for tax apportionment to objecting to a count of slaves for apportionment of representation, both based on population. The 3/5ths compromise had already been argued out four years before, so it was the logical path to resolve the issue.
9 posted on 09/18/2025 12:59:48 PM PDT by nicollo (Trump beat the cheat! )
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To: ProgressingAmerica

“. It is common practice for those who dishonestly wield slavery as a weapon to take a step back and cite some odd-ball random fact like France abolished slavery in the 1300s or whatever year it was. France abolished white people owning white people; France abolished Frenchies owning Frenchies. “

And omits entirely how “blacks” got to Haiti - brought in by the French as slaves for their plantations on Haiti.


10 posted on 09/18/2025 1:19:17 PM PDT by Wuli (uire)
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To: Eagle Forgotten

You are mincing words. The 3/5s compromise was an anti-slavery “compromise”. Without the attitude against slavery there would have no need for any “compromise”, the counting of slaves would have been accepted by all the colonies. It - the compromise was produced to provide some satisfaction to the anti-slavery position of enough colonial reps.


11 posted on 09/18/2025 1:26:02 PM PDT by Wuli (uire)
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To: ProgressingAmerica

bump


12 posted on 09/18/2025 1:47:42 PM PDT by Albion Wilde (RIP, Charlie. Say hi to Andrew Breitbart. God protect your family. Justice for Charlie Kirk!)
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To: Wuli

“It - the compromise was produced to provide some satisfaction to the anti-slavery position of enough colonial reps.”

Indeed it was produced to provide some satisfaction to the anti-slavery position.

It was also produced to provide some satisfaction to the pro-slavery position. Slave states that treated blacks as property for most purposes were, for purposes of political power, allowed to act as if they were (at least sort of) people.

It was a typical compromise. Each side got something and each side gave up something.

It was neither pro-slavery nor anti-slavery. Fundamentally, it was practical. Without the compromise, there could not have been a Constitution. The former colonies would have continued to lurch along under the Articles of Confederation — which, by 1787, were widely seen, North and South, to be dysfunctional.


13 posted on 09/18/2025 1:53:18 PM PDT by Eagle Forgotten
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To: ProgressingAmerica

📌


14 posted on 09/18/2025 3:50:24 PM PDT by griswold3 (Truth Beauty and Goodness)
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To: Eagle Forgotten

“It was neither pro-slavery nor anti-slavery.”

Wrong. The fact, the cause, the reason it was done at all was by the demand of the anti-slavery camp. That makes the matter a anti-slavery act, and it proved itself over time as the south kept losing representation and due to that losing votes in the following decades on Congressional anti-slavery acts. Without the 3/5 “compromise” the slave states would not have lost so much power in Congress. The 3/5 position proved its worth over time in favor of the anti-slavery position.


15 posted on 09/18/2025 9:15:57 PM PDT by Wuli (uire)
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To: ProgressingAmerica

bookmark


16 posted on 09/18/2025 9:42:27 PM PDT by Loud Mime ("The Real Constitution" on Amazon. We are not right wing - we are constitutional centrists.)
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To: Wuli

“The fact, the cause, the reason it was done at all was by the demand of the anti-slavery camp.”

No, the anti-slavery camp demand was for the slaves to not be counted at all. They wanted representation in the House to be based on the number of FREE people. The pro-slavery camp demand was for the slaves to be counted as full people.

The pro-slavery camp didn’t get everything it wanted. But that doesn’t make the compromise anti-slavery, because the anti-slavery camp also didn’t get everything it wanted.

Here’s a summary from Encyclopedia Britannica:
“The matter of how to determine population was anything but trivial. Having failed to secure the abolishment of slavery, some delegates from the Northern states sought to make representation dependent on the size of a state’s free population. Southern delegates, on the other hand, threatened to abandon the convention if enslaved individuals were not counted. Eventually, the framers agreed on a compromise that called for representation in the House of Representatives to be apportioned on the basis of a state’s free population plus three-fifths of its enslaved population.”
Source: https://www.britannica.com/topic/three-fifths-compromise?utm_source=chatgpt.com


17 posted on 09/19/2025 8:16:13 AM PDT by Eagle Forgotten
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To: Eagle Forgotten

You keep ignoring the fact that minus the push from the anti-slavery side the compromise would not even have come up. Minus the push from the anti-slavery position slaves would have been counted same as all other people, because there would have been no anti-slavery push against doing so.

But there was the anti-slavery push, and BECAUSE OF IT, the 3/5 compromise was made. That fact makes the comprise very existence due to the push from the anti-slavery position, and a compromised victory for that position.


18 posted on 09/20/2025 9:08:45 AM PDT by Wuli (uire)
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To: Wuli

You and I have completely different understandings of what “compromise” means. Specifically, you keep wanting to look at only part of what was going on.

Yes, if the anti-slavery people had kept quiet and let the slavocracy have its way, each slave would have been counted as 1.

But it’s equally true that, if the pro-slavery people had kept quiet and let the anti-slavery faction have its way, each slave would have counted as zero. (Representation would have been based on the number of free people.)

The “very existence” of the compromise was due to the competing pressures — the pushes from BOTH sides, not just one.


19 posted on 09/20/2025 3:32:55 PM PDT by Eagle Forgotten
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To: Eagle Forgotten

I don’t misunderstand the meaning of compromise.

You misinterpret the facts to try to water down the fact that (1) the pro-slavery people were not going to keep quiet and let slaves count for zero - there was never any chance of that, they had no such willing position at any time (2) and therefor why did a compromise have to be arranged to begin with - because of the pro-slavery position, or because of the anti-slavery position; it was only due the fact there was an anti-slavery position.

Did the compromise give the anti-slavery position all they wanted? No. It was still a victory, albeit a truncated victory for the anti-slavery position.


20 posted on 09/20/2025 4:03:32 PM PDT by Wuli (uire)
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