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Yeshua’s Famous Last Words Amen, Emet, Truth
Michael Rood's Sabbat NIght Live Via Youtube ^ | 28 February 2014 | Michael Rood

Posted on 03/02/2014 3:59:10 PM PST by Errant

As the book of the Revelation comes to a close, we are left with some very important words. Keep his commandments, know his Torah, and make yourself ready to be the bride of the King. He is coming quickly. Join Michael Rood for the final episode in the series From Here to Eternity – Yeshua’s Famous Last Words: Amen, Emet, Truth.

(Excerpt) Read more at youtube.com ...


TOPICS: Chit/Chat; Religion; Sports
KEYWORDS: endtimes; hebrew; rood; snl
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To: roamer_1
I don't think you are right, but you would need to understand the strictures of 'discipleship' in the Hebrew sense.

Bo tasbir li.

641 posted on 03/06/2014 7:58:21 PM PST by af_vet_1981 (The bus came by and I got on, That's when it all began)
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To: af_vet_1981

It’s official...You need to post on these threads more often. Excellent expository.


642 posted on 03/06/2014 8:42:56 PM PST by redleghunter
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To: af_vet_1981

I was simply saying that sometimes there is a difference of opinion. I completely agree that either through action or inaction, we don’t want to cause stumbling blocks to be laid.


643 posted on 03/06/2014 9:34:44 PM PST by Errant (Surround yourself with intelligent and industrious people who help and support each other.)
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To: editor-surveyor
I don't know where you learned your Bible 101, but you have no leg to stand on in insisting the New Testament books were originally written in Hebrew. Perhaps you missed the parts where Paul was sent to the Gentiles - the NOT-Hebrew-speaking, NOT-Jewish peoples of the world. You seem to lack ANY understanding of this very basic fact. You have NO "solid" evidence that any books that make up the NT of the Bible were first written in Hebrew - none, nada, zip. Why doesn't that sink in???

And, probably more important than that, why can't you admit that God is capable of illuminating His truths to ANYONE no matter what language they speak? Does a Swahili speaker lose out because he never heard the gospel in Hebrew? Take a breather, ES, you are hyperventilating!

644 posted on 03/06/2014 9:39:34 PM PST by boatbums (Simul justis et peccator.)
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To: editor-surveyor
The NT was done in Hebrew because it was directed at the only people Yeshua was sent to: The Hebrew speaking lost sheep of the House of Israel.

Since there is zero empirical evidence of this Hebrew-original NT, it can have no reason for being.

645 posted on 03/06/2014 9:44:31 PM PST by RansomOttawa (tm)
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To: metmom

Excellent points!


646 posted on 03/06/2014 9:44:55 PM PST by boatbums (Simul justis et peccator.)
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To: boatbums; editor-surveyor
You have NO "solid" evidence that any books that make up the NT of the Bible were first written in Hebrew - none, nada, zip. Why doesn't that sink in???

Uhhh, maybe because you don't speak the truth???

http://freerepublic.com/focus/bloggers/3128823/posts?page=534#534

Just sayin'...

647 posted on 03/06/2014 9:45:36 PM PST by Errant (Surround yourself with intelligent and industrious people who help and support each other.)
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To: RansomOttawa; editor-surveyor; roamer_1; winodog

Since Yeshua spoke Hebrew and all of the Apostles spoke Hebrew, how is it that you and others here believe that suddenly their accounts appeared on paper in the Greek language with no possible intermediary in written Hebrew? Now there is a miracle never recorded! I’d say it ranks write up there with the writing on the wall. What you are claiming defies all logic, and indeed the opinion of most published Bible scholars.


648 posted on 03/06/2014 9:58:02 PM PST by Errant (Surround yourself with intelligent and industrious people who help and support each other.)
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To: boatbums
Has it ever occurred to you that the writers of the New Testament wrote in Greek to ensure a wide dissemination of the teachings of Christ and His Apostles and that they did the translating from the spoken Aramaic of Christ Jesus into Greek?

[etc.]

There is a superb essay in the first volume of the Expositor's Bible Commentary on this very subject: arguing that the political/demographic/cultural conditions of the time of Christ were just right for the coming of the Messiah and the spread of his gospel. Among the two examples cited: the Roman road system, which enabled rapid (for the day) travel between population centres; and the use of koine Greek as the lingua franca of the Empire, enabling nearly any of Caesar's subjects to hear and understand the Gospel.

Unfortunately, I don't have my book handy, and I can't tell from a table of contents listing which essay it was. I believe it is "Between the Testaments," by Harold Hoehner, but I'm not 100% certain of that.

Christianity was meant from the beginning to spread throughout the world. It would have made little sense for its chief documents to have been written either in Aramaic (the regional language of Palestine) nor Hebrew (which was basically limited to the synagogue). Certainly not when Alexander the Great had taken the trouble to unite the entire known world under the Greek banner!

649 posted on 03/06/2014 9:58:53 PM PST by RansomOttawa (tm)
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To: Errant; redleghunter; CynicalBear; winodog
So, you even admit that Rood adds to the word of God words that are NOT there? It isn't even done like a commentary but is his own so-called translation of the Scriptures. If he uses the Shem Tov (the Hebrew Gospel of Matthew), it is even more reason to reject whatever he teaches. A helpful link for more info is Satanic Translations: Shem Tov & The Toledoth Yeshu.
650 posted on 03/06/2014 10:00:54 PM PST by boatbums (Simul justis et peccator.)
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To: boatbums
Shem-Tov's Hebrew Matthew
651 posted on 03/06/2014 10:10:07 PM PST by Errant (Surround yourself with intelligent and industrious people who help and support each other.)
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To: Errant
Uhhh...maybe you need to post more than a link to a group of videos. Just sayin'.

Give this "solid" evidence you claim exists. Provide more than some non-Christian's imaginings spread out over a video you have to watch instead of being able to just read what he claims to provide. Post his links to scholarly works he wrote or those upon which he relied. You should know by now that you can't expect someone to invest time in watching a video and a little more effort on your part would go a long way.

652 posted on 03/06/2014 10:10:25 PM PST by boatbums (Simul justis et peccator.)
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To: Errant
All this I have spoken while still with you. But the Advocate, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, will teach you all things and will remind you of everything I have said to you. (John 14:25,26)

So, yes, it WAS a miracle!

653 posted on 03/06/2014 10:13:29 PM PST by boatbums (Simul justis et peccator.)
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To: Errant
Since Yeshua spoke Hebrew and all of the Apostles spoke Hebrew,

Are you implying that Jesus and all of the Apostles spoke exclusively Hebrew?

Paul, for example, was a free-born Roman citizen of Tarsus, the capital of the province of Cilicia in Asia Minor, and as Paul himself says, no small city. We know for a fact that he spoke Greek (Acts 21:37) and Aramaic (v. 40) in addition to Hebrew.

how is it that you and others here believe that suddenly their accounts appeared on paper in the Greek language with no possible intermediary in written Hebrew

Unless you assume that Jesus and all the apostles were unilingual and writing to an exclusively Hebrew-speaking audience, then there is no mystery about the appearance of a Greek NT. Since at least two of the NT authors were educated men (Luke, a physician, and Paul, a rabbi) and it is not beyond the pale that the remainder were also bilingual or even trilingual, I reject your assumption.

Also, who said anything about "suddenly"?

What you are claiming defies all logic

Only if you assume (I don't) that your assumption is the only logical option, which clearly it isn't.

654 posted on 03/06/2014 10:17:35 PM PST by RansomOttawa (tm)
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To: RansomOttawa

Thanks for that. I have read several articles that expound upon this. All things are in God’s timing. Amen!


655 posted on 03/06/2014 10:18:20 PM PST by boatbums (Simul justis et peccator.)
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To: RansomOttawa; Errant; roamer_1
From Satanic Translations: Shem Tov & The Toledoth Yeshu:

(I)t needs to be said there is a mountain of scholarship showing Matthean authorship of the Greek manuscript we call the book of Matthew. Indeed, the Grecian book of Matthew shows unmistakable internal evidence of its authenticity by the disciple of Jesus.

In an attempt to make the scholarly data more accessible, we note the fact there are numerous statements within the Greek text itself where the narrative tells us the meaning of a Hebrew term. If the writing originated in Hebrew, an ongoing occasional translation would not be necessary. In other words, if Matthew (or the larger body of the New Testament) originated in Aramaic or Hebrew, it would be unnecessary to tell the reader what a particular Hebrew word or phrase means.

It is only because the writing did originate in Greek that an occasional explanation is needed, and such interpretive statements are provided in the Scripture itself. Thus, we see several examples of these ongoing translation notes. For instance, in Matthew's first chapter, the disciple cites the prophecy from Isaiah concerning how a virgin will conceive, and a male child will come forth who is to be called Immanuel. Isaiah wrote:

    "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel." (Isaiah 7:14)

When Matthew quotes this prophecy, he writes:

    "Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us." (Matthew 1:22,23)

In the Shem Tov version of Matthew, which was supposedly composed in Hebrew, the verse also tells us the name Immanuel, means God with us in Hebrew. Once again, if the book was actually written in Hebrew, there would be no reason to tell the reader the meaning of the name, for the name Immanuel is Hebrew.

It should also be noted that this type of internal evidence also discredits the supposed Aramaic version of the entire New Testament called the Peshitta, as well as other pseudo-Matthews forged by Antichrist Jews in the middle ages. Thus, it's significant that Shem Tov's supposed Hebrew Matthew follows the Aramaic Peshitta, in its ongoing interpretation of certain Hebrew words.

In short, these writings were drawn from the Greek originals, and it never occurred to the forgers who claimed their abomination as the originals, to edit out the ongoing translation notes. This is the wooden stake in the heart of these wicked counterfeits. Indeed, we see the same interpretive notes occur in the writings of all four Gospel writers, Matthew, Mark, Luke, and even John. For instance, in the book of John we see the following:

    "And he bearing his cross went forth into a place called the place of a skull, which is called in the Hebrew Golgotha..." (John 19:17)

In the supposedly "original" Aramaic New Testament known as the Peshitta, we see the text follows a similar phrasing:

    "Carrying his cross, to the place which is called The Skull, but in Hebrew it is called Golgotha." (John 19:17, Lamsa translation of the Aramaic Peshitta).

This ongoing translation is also found in the Greek manuscripts of Luke's work, The Acts Of The Apostles, and once again, the counterfeit Aramaic "original" is exposed as a fraud. Luke writes:

    "And it was known unto all the dwellers at Jerusalem; insomuch as that field is called in their proper tongue, Aceldama, that is to say, the field of blood." (Acts 1:19)

Since the supposed Semitic original also translates the name within the text itself, it's clear the Aramaic is actually a corrupted translation of the Greek original:

    "And this very thing is known to all who dwell in Jerusalem; so that the field is called in the language of the country, Khakal-Dema, which is to say Koriath-Dem, the field of blood." (Acts 1:19 Lamsa translation of the Aramaic Peshitta)

This means that, regarding the Shem Tov abomination, the claim that Matthew's Gospel would not conform to the Greek linguistic culture of his time, and would, therefore, be written in Hebrew, is fallacious.

Literally hundreds of experts have written commentaries on the book of Matthew, and there is no doubt whatsoever that Matthew's Gospel was written in Greek. Indeed, some scholars have deciphered errors in the Eusebian notation of the "tradition" that Matthew ever "published" a version of his Gospel in Hebrew.

656 posted on 03/06/2014 10:25:49 PM PST by boatbums (Simul justis et peccator.)
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To: boatbums; RansomOttawa; redleghunter; CynicalBear
Give this "solid" evidence you claim exists.

I'll take Nehemiah Gordon's evidence, a notably skilled and certified Hebrew Bible scholar, well respected in his field, over a boatbum's baseless claims of no evidence and refusal to even review any of the evidence presented (including written) every day of the week and twice on Sun Day!

Here is a bit more evidence, not that it will matter one iota to you, but in the chance that someone else may find it educational...

The Language of Judaea and Galilee

657 posted on 03/06/2014 10:32:34 PM PST by Errant (Surround yourself with intelligent and industrious people who help and support each other.)
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To: boatbums; editor-surveyor; winodog; roamer_1; RansomOttawa; redleghunter; CynicalBear
From Satanic Translations: Shem Tov & The Toledoth Yeshu:

You really are a bum for posting ANYTHING for this idiot, lol:

The true story of James Lloyd doing business as Christian Media Network

658 posted on 03/06/2014 10:45:17 PM PST by Errant (Surround yourself with intelligent and industrious people who help and support each other.)
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To: RansomOttawa
We know for a fact that he spoke Greek (Acts 21:37) and Aramaic (v. 40) in addition to Hebrew.

But no evidence of him writing in it. And in regard to the remainder of your post, there is no evidence that any of the other apostles could even speak Greek. Sure, anything is possible I suppose but common sense tells us they would have first written down their accounts in their native tongue; one they were intimately familiar with. More so since these accounts happened in a land were Hebrew was the primary language.

In any regard, they certainly did not think in Greek, therefore everything they saw and heard had to be translated by someone(s) fluent enough in the Greek language that they were able to "coin" words and phrases to match Hebrew words and phrases as closely as possible. And even then, the Pagan characteristics of the Greek language limits the ability to completely convey the message from Hebrew as we've seen.

659 posted on 03/06/2014 11:05:00 PM PST by Errant (Surround yourself with intelligent and industrious people who help and support each other.)
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To: Errant
Here is a bit more evidence, not that it will matter one iota to you, but in the chance that someone else may find it educational...

Is Nehemiah Gordon a believer in Yeshua/Jesus (or however you want to say His blessed name)? Those who are anti-Christ are not to be trusted when it comes to teaching what scripture clearly says about the deity of Jesus Christ. And my "claims" are not baseless but backed up by Biblical scholars that DO follow Jesus Christ.

As for the languages of Judea and Galilee, let me ask you this...WHY was the Old Testament translated into Greek (the Septuagint) two hundred years BEFORE Christianity came into existence? DO you know that the Greeks ruled the known world before the Romans? Can you understand, perhaps, why Greek was the common language of the people of Judea and Galilee as well as the other regions of that part of the world?

660 posted on 03/06/2014 11:18:26 PM PST by boatbums (Simul justis et peccator.)
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