No. I stated that the your interpreted "requirement" was effective the moment Jesus related it to Nicodemus.(John 3:5). Why would John be baptizing and to what were the disciples baptizing?
Firstly, it's Christ's statement that He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned. Mark 16:16 no human logic -- only if one denies what Christ clearly said that belief and baptism is needed to be saved that is human logic
Secondly, John 3:5 tells of what is needed in the New Covenant. The Old Covenant given to Noah was sealed with a sacrifice.
So too the New Covenant was sealed with the purest sacrifice -- Jesus Christ's death on the cross
FROM THE RESURRECTION the New Covenant begins.