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To: AndrewC; getoffmylawn; boatbums; kosta50
John 3:16 16For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

This has nothing to do with the meaning of the Greek words used in John 3:3 and 3:7

The term "born again" is only used in 3:3 and 3:7 where it is translted from the Greek words gennatha anothen -- in the New Testament it is translated everywhere else as "from above"

So, the proper translation of John 3:3-7 would be

3Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born from above, he cannot see the kingdom of God.
4Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother's womb, and be born?
5Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
6That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.
7Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born from above
For orthodoxy, that change in translation affects nothing -- 5 is critical Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. and this is being born of above, i.e. of water and Spirit together.

Jesus, our Lord, God and Savior uses the waters in baptism through which he grants us His grace of salvation

the union of water and the Holy Spirit is what we read in John 3:5 -- this was no mere symbolism as He says you must be "born of water"

When one is baptised into orthodoxy, God does this baptising through the hands of whichever Christian is sprinkling the water. Water has no inherent power but the Holy SPirit's presence that comes through the means as Christ said is what Ananias meant when he said "be baptized and wash away your sins"

3,478 posted on 06/17/2011 7:08:13 AM PDT by Cronos ( W Szczebrzeszynie chrząszcz brzmi w trzcinie I Szczebrzeszyn z tego słynie.)
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To: Cronos
This has nothing to do with the meaning of the Greek words used in John 3:3 and 3:7

I did not attempt to connect the meanings of the individual words. I was demonstrating that kosta was calling the writer of John 3:16 a liar since his conclusion was that John made up at least verses 3 an 4.

Jhn 8:44 Ye are of [your] father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.

Which would make John what?

3,482 posted on 06/17/2011 9:29:53 AM PDT by AndrewC
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