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To: A_Thinker
When Jesus says that he "had" the glory for which he no prays, he is merely asking for the glory which he knew was prepared for him by God from the beginning. that glory existed in God's plan, and in that sense Yeshua already "had" it. Note that Yeshua did not say, "Give me back" or "restore" to me the glory which I had when I was alive with you before my birth." This notion would have been completly foreign to Judaism. It is quite unecessary
and wrong to read Gentile ideas into the texts of Scripture
when we can make good sense of them as they stand in their Jewish environment. The onus is on those who believe in literal preexistence to demonstrate that the texts cannot be explained within their own Jewish context. And it should be remembered that the Hebrew Boible, which has much to say in anticipation of the coming Son of God, makes no statement to imply that the Messiah was God destined to arrive froma personal pre-birth existence in heaven. The idea that God can be born as a man is alien to the Jewish environment in which Jesus taught. A revolution would have been required for the introduction of such a novel concept.
254 posted on 07/01/2003 8:31:46 PM PDT by Invincibly Ignorant
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To: Invincibly Ignorant
And it should be remembered that the Hebrew Boible, which has much to say in anticipation of the coming Son of God, makes no statement to imply that the Messiah was God destined to arrive froma personal pre-birth existence in heaven.

You've read it in the original yiddish?

256 posted on 07/01/2003 8:49:30 PM PDT by Alex Murphy (Athanasius contra mundum!)
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To: Invincibly Ignorant
Once again, you wrest the scriptures away from it's plain meaning ...

Jesus said ... "Glorify me ... with the glory I had with Thee before the world was."

... not "Glorify me ... with the glory You prepared for me from the beginning."

The idea that God can be born as a man is alien to the Jewish environment in which Jesus taught. A revolution would have been required for the introduction of such a novel concept.

Either that or kill the messenger, I guess.

Remind me ... why did the Jewish religious leaders decide to turn Jesus over to the Romans for execution ?

261 posted on 07/01/2003 9:05:45 PM PDT by A_Thinker
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To: Invincibly Ignorant
When Jesus says that he "had" the glory for which he no prays, he is merely asking for the glory which he knew was prepared for him by God from the beginning.

I'm sorry, but the actual text of John xvii:5 - "te: doxe: he: eikhon pro tou ton kosmon einai para soi" - simply will not bear that interpretation.

271 posted on 07/01/2003 11:52:46 PM PDT by John Locke
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