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Principles of Literal Bible Interpretation
Bible Truth ^ | Revised, Aug 2001 | Cooper P. Abrams, III

Posted on 10/29/2002 5:18:29 AM PST by xzins



TOPICS: General Discusssion
KEYWORDS: actual; allegorical; bible; figurative; interpretation; literal; real; symbolic
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1 posted on 10/29/2002 5:18:29 AM PST by xzins
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To: hopespringseternal; drstevej; fortheDeclaration; winstonchurchill; ShadowAce; P-Marlowe; ...
The principles detailed above are fairly standard within a literal methodology. Some of the author's comments, explanations, and illustrations are unique to him.

The issue is the effort to establish a consistent methodology for literal bible interpretation. It is necessary to remember that "literal bible interpretation" is the name for a PROCESS that properly places symbols, allegories, figures, types, metaphors, etc., in their proper context.

It is not a way to say that the "symbolic" does not exist in the Bible.

As near as I can tell, the closest synonym to "literal methodology" is what scholars mean when they say "exegesis."
2 posted on 10/29/2002 5:31:49 AM PST by xzins
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Comment #3 Removed by Moderator

To: BibChr; xzins
The method that God gave is the literal method, or what man has labeled the Grammatical-Historical Method.

Where is that in the Bible?

4 posted on 10/29/2002 6:50:44 AM PST by B-Chan
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To: B-Chan
It is the Bible. Read the whole essay.

Dan

5 posted on 10/29/2002 6:54:38 AM PST by BibChr
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To: xzins
Unless the passage says otherwise, or is clearly using metaphorical languate give Scripture a literal meaning. .....

. Often the Bible does use figurative speech. The art or skill of an interpreter, using the proper rules of interpretation combined with good sense can easily understand the meaning.....

It should be understood that this does not mean we are to take metaphorical language literally.

Of course, all this hand waving is to obscure that a major source of differences in interpretations is in identifying which passages are literal and which are metaphorical.

Likewise, it is fairly naive to state that we can "easily undestand" the meaning of figurative passages. Exactly what these passages mean, what message is being conveyed is another source of differences.

GRANT ONE INTERPRETATION TO EACH PASSAGE.
When the words of Scripture were penned they had only one meaning. We should search for that one meaning. To accept multiple interpretations for one scripture passage causes confusion. Scripture itself does not allow for multiple interpretations of a verse.

Right. So the story of Abraham and Isaac, or of Noah, or of the Exodus, only has one, literal, meaning. We are not to read these as foreshadows of things to come?

SD

6 posted on 10/29/2002 7:14:59 AM PST by SoothingDave
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To: xzins
Thanks for a good article. I got half way through and am going to make a hard copy. I do better with hard copies:)

Becky

7 posted on 10/29/2002 7:18:23 AM PST by PayNoAttentionManBehindCurtain
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To: xzins
"If the literal sense makes sense, seek no other sense."

Then the Jews started arguing with one another: "How can this man give us his flesh to eat?" they said. Jesus replied: "I tell you most solemnly, if you do not eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you will not have life in you. Anyone who does eat my flesh and drink my blood has eternal life, and I shall raise him up on the last day. For my flesh is real food and my blood is real drink. He who eats my flesh and drinks my blood lives in me and I live in him."

Makes perfect literal sense to me!

8 posted on 10/29/2002 7:18:58 AM PST by american colleen
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To: xzins; Jean Chauvin
How did you read this? Kind of a long article.
9 posted on 10/29/2002 8:18:05 AM PST by Wrigley
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Comment #10 Removed by Moderator

To: xzins; BibChr; sheltonmac
The correct interpretation of the passage is that Christ will literally reign for one thousand years on earth!

This man is an idiot. He doesn't even follow his own rules of interpretation. Someone please show me where the word earth appears in Revelation 20: 1 - 6. It doesn't. There is no mention where the "reigning" takes place. No literal word earth in that passage.

I am very hesitant to read someone who doesn't follow his own rules. What a dispensational joke this it.

11 posted on 10/29/2002 9:02:21 AM PST by sola gracia
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To: american colleen; sheltonmac
Makes perfect literal sense to me!

So the literalists make us out to be cannibals. What blasphemy!! In fact, the early Christians were persecuted because they were accused of being cannibals.

12 posted on 10/29/2002 9:04:40 AM PST by sola gracia
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To: B-Chan; BibChr; xzins
The method that God gave is the literal method, or what man has labeled the Grammatical-Historical Method.
Where is that in the Bible?

B-Chan,
I think scholars sometimes can lose people through the use of big words and complex construction of simple concepts enveloped in brilliant essays that are just so so long.

I think the author of the piece would agree that the literal method (or the other big word method) are high foolitin terms for just reading what it says without monkeying with it. By example: when you balance your checkbook, do you take the numbers as they are and add them up? You are using the literal method. That is all they are saying.

If you decide to use some other more creative method based on what you think the amounts should have been, you will eventually screw up your balance and perhaps the bank will garner your wages to pay it. This relates to your question, where it is in the Bible that it is supposed to be taken literally. All of creation as revealed by the Bible and confirmed by science follows real literal natural laws, conforms to the literal method. Curious what you think :) Where you looking for passages/references?
13 posted on 10/29/2002 9:25:49 AM PST by Scarlet_Pimpernil
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To: xzins
The principles detailed above are fairly standard within a literal methodology. Some of the author's comments, explanations, and illustrations are unique to him.

The only interpretative principle which I didn't see is an important one: Take into account the genre of the book.

For example, it is highly reasonable to assume that in writing a letter, or a summary of current events (i.e. a Gospel) or a history, one intends the simple declarative meaning of one's sentences. However, the same cannot be said of one relating his dreams in allegorical language. The fact that a writer continuously represents his actors as seven-headed beasts, etc is a clue to most any open-minded reader that he does NOT intend the simple declarative meaning of his sentence, but something hugely allegorical.

So, an important principle (which would save the author from his 'literal millenium' error) would be: Accept the literal, simple declarative meaning of a writing unless there are clues from the author (in the context or genre of the the writing) that he did not intend to convey such a literal recitation.

That is why I, like some others here, do not generally enter into the 'millenium' discussions: the 'dispensationalist' theories are based on the two most clearly allegorical books of the Bible (i.e. Daniel and the second half of Revelation). As such the hugely allegorical presentations are almost useless to us. The secret decoder ring for the allegoties has long since been lost (although I think that old John was probably providing a dream-like (politically safe) explanation of what was happening right then).

But the important point is that there is no question that the authors intended that a decoder ring was required. Once we take note of that fact, then treating them as simple declarative sentences capable of literal application is an abuse of the author's work.

The Lord will come again. When, I don't know. What He will do after He comes, I don't know. Call me stupid, but extracting anymore than that from dream-sequence allegories is merest speculation -- no matter what your preferred outcome.

14 posted on 10/29/2002 9:26:58 AM PST by winstonchurchill
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To: Dutch-Comfort
" It is much more apparent that all the different views have their values and validity, their small piece of knowledge of the infinite mystery, and not just one. "

It is hard to determine if one agrees or disagrees with your statement,as its logical construction is faulty.

>You say that each interpretation is a small piece of the infinite mystery (singular), which implies that there is one literal truth and we perhaps don't have a complete grasp on it. Yet, you also state that only one point of view of the Bible could not accurately reflect the divine mystery. Which is it, one literal truth or many co-existent truths?
>You then go on to say that all different views are valid...contradicting what you said earlier where you state that the literal interpretation is foolish and therefore invalid.



15 posted on 10/29/2002 9:39:54 AM PST by Scarlet_Pimpernil
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Comment #16 Removed by Moderator

To: xzins
<>II Timothy 3:16-17, clearly states that God gave us the Bible. The verses tell us that the Bible is " . . . profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: that the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works." <>

<>Accepting what the words literally mean is a vital part of this first rule.<>


that the man of God may...may..may help make the man of God complete and equipped.....not that scripture in itself is complete and equipped...man of God is also clergy not a layperson..
17 posted on 10/29/2002 10:41:06 AM PST by Irisshlass
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To: Dutch-Comfort
It is much more apparent that all the different views have their values and validity, their small piece of knowledge of the infinite mystery, and not just one.

If you recall, the original objection was that contradictory theses are derived by people using the same Scriptural texts. Now God may be infinite, but He is not contradictory. Some things are true and others are not.

Every opinion and thesis about God is not simply a matter of perspective, is not a partial view of a larger infinite truth.

Some of them are just plain wrong. Period.

For example, some people, using the Bible texts have found that Jesus is God, the He is the Second Person of a Trinity. Others, using the same texts, found that He was just a man, and not a divine being.

Now God is infinite and all, but these two views are not just different perspectives on the same reality, the same infinite Being. They contradict.

One must be true, while the other false. Either Jesus is divine, or He is not. There is no way that both can be true.

SD

18 posted on 10/29/2002 10:53:27 AM PST by SoothingDave
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To: Irisshlass
<>Accepting what the words literally mean is a vital part of this first rule.<>

James 1:4 And let steadfastness have its full effect, that you may be perfect and complete, lacking in nothing."

We don't need anything including scripture except steadfastness?????
19 posted on 10/29/2002 10:57:59 AM PST by Irisshlass
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To: SoothingDave
For example, some people, using the Bible texts have found that Jesus is God, the He is the Second Person of a Trinity. Others, using the same texts, found that He was just a man, and not a divine being.

But the people who are denying that Jesus was not divine are not taking ALL scriptue literally. Jesus claimed divinity several times. What about the times God spoke from above while Jesus was on earth, This is my Son....

Becky

20 posted on 10/29/2002 11:06:17 AM PST by PayNoAttentionManBehindCurtain
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