[Irisshlass]

What Paul is referring to is "boasting" of works...

Romans 3
27 Where then is (1) boasting? It is excluded. By (2) what kind of law? Of works? No, but by a law of faith.

Romans 4
2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but (1) not before God.

Ephesians 2
9 (1) not as a result of works, so that (2) no one may boast

Romans 2
The Jew Is Condemned by the Law

17 But if you bear the name "Jew" and (1) rely upon the Law and boast in God,
23 You who (2) boast in the Law, through your breaking the Law, do you dishonor God?

1 Corinthians 1
29 so that (1) no man may boast before God

[RnMomof7]

Your scripture makes my point well Thank You . There is no righteousness in sacraments ..or in good Works.

Rom 4:1   What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found?   

  Rom 4:2   For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath [whereof] to glory; but not before God.

  

  Rom 4:3   For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.   

  Rom 4:4   Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt.

This is what I have been saying for a long time...Paul used Abraham to the Jews because the Jews believed he was Justified because of his righteousness. NO Paul is telling them...that is NOT true,for if it were God would be Abrahams debtor..owing him grace because of his obedience