When it wasn't reserved in the Holy of Holies the Ark protected Aaron's staff, the manna, and the tablets. Certainly these things could have placed in the Holy of Holies without the Ark, but the contents would have had to have been placed in a vessel superior to the Ark in construction and significance (since the Holy of Holies was the Holy of Holies). As you say, the Ark had also been used as a kind of altar and was certainly a sacred object.
Why was the blood poured on it once a year ?
It seems to me that the blood would better represent Christ than the thing over which the blood was poured.
Why when Jesus died was that veil rent..giving all men access to the Holy of Holies directly?
The tearing of the veil of the Temple at the death of Christ marked the end of the Jewish religion as the true religion. This Jewish religion had been a figure of the True Church and, when the Church was established, was no longer needed; types and figures had to give way to reality. The veil of the Temple concealed the Holy of Holies, the most sacred part of the Temple.
It doesn't necessarily follow from this that the Ark was a type for Jesus.
No more intermediary needed..are you saying the access given was to mary?
No. Types can have several senses. For example, the Temple can be a figure for Christ or it can be a figure for Jesus' Churches. Catholic Churches all have the superior "Holy of Holies" where Jesus' Body and Blood is reserved.
The Ark is a type for Mary since it acted primarily as a container for three types which foreshadowed Jesus. Mary's womb is the only thing in the New Testament that acted comparably or analogously (except for perhaps the Holy Grail).
For in Mary "the Word became flesh and dwelt [literally "tabernacled" or "pitched his tent"] among us" (Jn 1:14).
But because the Ark can be said to be a type for Mary doesn't mean that every aspect of the Ark has to correspond exactly with Mary, just as every aspect of the Temple doesn't necessarily, exactly correspond with Jesus.
Ps can you prove she was sinless ? Because that is not what the bible says and not what she says.
Argument from Scripture alone here.
Some historical background and arguments here
I love ya A ..but that is a "silly" statement..
It was made and intended to be the ONLY article in the Holy of Holies.
I never said it was used as an altar YOU said that ...no animals were sacrificed on it...the High priest brought the blood in and poured it on the Mercy seat...
Was Mary the Mercy seat?
The tearing of the veil of the Temple at the death of Christ marked the end of the Jewish religion as the true religion. This Jewish religion had been a figure of the True Church and, when the Church was established, was no longer needed; types and figures had to give way to reality. The veil of the Temple concealed the Holy of Holies, the most sacred part of the Temple.
Read the word..it was the veil that kept anyone but the High Priest mediator out of the Holy of Holies..it was a barrier between God and man.. The mediator was the High Priest. The only one allowed in there to make an offering for the people. ANY one else entering would be struck dead.
When Christ died men no longer need the High priest the mediate for them (or any priest) The veil was opened to allow all of us to come to God directly through Jesus
Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost. And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom—Matthew 27:50-51.
Having therefore, brethren, boldness to enter into the holiest by the blood of Jesus, by a new and living way, which be hath consecrated for us, through the, veil, that is to say, his flesh—Hebrews 10:19-20.
1Ti 2:5 For [there is] one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
Hbr 12:24 And to Jesus the mediator of the new covenant, and to the blood of sprinkling, that speaketh better things than [that of] Abel.
Is Mary your mediator? Or is it the mediator that God has sent?
Luk 1:46 And Mary said, My soul doth magnify the Lord,
Luk 1:47 And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour. Mary need a saviour because she was a sinner
Rom 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin;>font color=blue> and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
All Aquinas ALL..not some...not most.... not all except Mary...ALL
" Luke 2:22-24 22 When the time of their purification according to the Law of Moses had been completed, Joseph and Mary took him to Jerusalem to present him to the Lord 23 (as it is written in the Law of the Lord, "Every firstborn male is to be consecrated to the Lord"), 24 and to offer a sacrifice in keeping with what is said in the Law of the Lord: "a pair of doves or two young pigeons."
It says that Mary had to be purified according to the law of Moses.This next Scripture explains what the purification is for
"Lev 12:6 6 "'When the days of her purification for a son or daughter are over, she is to bring to the priest at the entrance to the Tent of Meeting a year-old lamb for a burnt offering and a young pigeon or a dove for a sin offering. (NIV) Lev 12:8 8 If she cannot afford a lamb, she is to bring two doves or two young pigeons, one for a burnt offering and the other for a sin offering. In this way the priest will make atonement for her, and she will be clean.'" (NIV) "
If Mary was without sin, as you are trying to prove, please explain why she had to make a sin offering and be cleansed by a priest?
I find it amazing that the website you point to in your post that claims no biblical reference to Mary being a sinner ignore these verses. "