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Pope Pius IX proclaimed the dogma of the Immaculate Conception of Mary on 1854-DEC-8. Many Roman Catholics believe that this refers to Jesus' conception circa 5 to 7 BCE. In fact, it means that Mary herself was conceived free of sin before her birth circa 20 BCE.

As a non-Catholic, could someone please explain the reasoning behind this?

Thanks

As a non-Catholic, could someone please explain the reasoning behind this?

The Immaculate Conception refers to the fact that through a singular Grace given by God, Mary was preserved from all stain of Original sin at the first moment of her existence at her conception in the womb of her mother, St. Anne.

The Virgin Birth refers to the conception of Jesus by the Holy Spirit with Mary's consent at the Annunciation and His subsequent Birth at Christmas.

Some people confuse these two events of Salvation History.

The Immaculate Conception of Mary was a miracle worked by God being necessary for the 2nd Person of the Blessed Trinity to become Man. From Eternity, God created, chose, and prepared Mary to be the Mother of His Divine Son, and through Him, of all people redeemed by His Cross. It was fitting that she who was to be His Mother, should be free of the stain of all sin, or from the other side of the coin, "full of Grace". This Grace, as are all Graces, is a result of Christ's Passion, and not separate from it.

This teaching has always been believed by the Church, in both the East and West, and it's feast day celebrated from the earliest times. It was not "invented" by the Pope, but rather proclaimed as dogma to clarify correct belief, as the Church's belief continually develops to deeper understanding. Indeed, theologians had been arguing about it's nuances for Centuries (which is their job), triggering the Pope's proclamation (which is his job).

Hope this short synopsis helps!

In fact, it means that Mary herself was conceived free of sin before her birth circa 20 BCE.

As a non-Catholic, could someone please explain the reasoning behind this?

Thanks for asking. There are three main reasons that I know of (besides Tradition). The first is the fact that Mary is addressed in Scripture as "full of grace" or "perfected in grace." Secondly, through typology. Mary is considered the Ark of the New Covenant. In the Old Testament the Ark contained Aaron's staff (signifying the priesthood), the Ten Commandments (representing the Law) and the manna (the bread from Heaven). In the New Testament, Mary (the new Ark) contained Jesus, the eternal High Priest, the New "Law," and the new "bread from Heaven" ("whoever eats this bread will live forever"). Finally, since God's Word (the decalogue) was kept in the Holy of Holies, it seems to be analogously necessary that Jesus (the Word made flesh) would have to be contained in a holy vessel (sinless mother).