Matthew 11: 20 - 27 -- Then Jesus began to denounce the cities in which most of his miracles had been performed, because they did not repent. "Woe to you, Korazin! Woe to you, Bethsaida! If the miracles that were performed in you had been performed in Tyre and Sidon, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes. But I tell you, it will be more bearable for Tyre and Sidon on the day of judgment than for you. And you, Capernaum, will you be lifted up to the skies? No, you will go down to the depths. If the miracles that were performed in you had been performed in Sodom, it would have remained to this day. But I tell you that it will be more bearable for Sodom on the day of judgment than for you." At that time Jesus said, "I praise you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because you have hidden these things from the wise and learned, and revealed them to little children. Yes, Father, for this was your good pleasure. "All things have been committed to me by my Father. No one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal him."
So, before all Creation...
- God foreknew Tyre, Sidon and Sodom's free choice NOT TO REPENT in the case of His non-performance of such Miracles; AND
- God foreknew Tyre, Sidon and Sodom's free choice TO REPENT in the case of His performance of such Miracles; AND
- God CHOSE NOT TO PERFORM these Miracles in Tyre, Sidon and Sodom, a choice which had as its perfectly foreknown result the NON-Repentance unto Damnation of Tyre, Sidon and Sodom -- just exactly as He foreknew would be the certain and determinate result of Creating this particular scenario.
I've been on the sidelines for most of this, not wanting to get involved in some of the ugliness on this thread. However, I just have to ask this one question regarding the setup of this.
When Jesus was speaking here, wasn't Jesus simply using a typical judgement oracle that prophets have used throughout the Old Testament? Because I do not believe that He was speaking here with divine foreknowldge.
What I mean is, when Jesus was Incarnate, He had clothed Himself with man's nature; an ignorant and servile nature. Clearly passages such as Mark 13:32 confirm that Jesus did not possess divine forknowledge in specific, but in general Jesus was not omniscient as well. There are many passages in the Gospels where Jesus expresses surprise, or even asks questions that would suggest that He honestly does not know the answer. Even Jesus' prediction of the destruction of Jerusalem could easily be attributed to His (human) reasoning that if the Jews continued in the path they were taking, Rome would most certainly take some kind of action.
In regards to your argument as you present, you clearly cannot move from Jesus saying "If the miracles that were performed..." to establish that Jesus was speaking as God, omniscient and with divine foreknowledge. So, then, aren't you arguing from a false premise?
When Jesus was speaking here, wasn't Jesus simply using a typical judgement oracle that prophets have used throughout the Old Testament? Because I do not believe that He was speaking here with divine foreknowldge. In regards to your argument as you present, you clearly cannot move from Jesus saying "If the miracles that were performed..." to establish that Jesus was speaking as God, omniscient and with divine foreknowledge. So, then, aren't you arguing from a false premise?"If the miracles that were performed in you had been performed in Sodom, it would have remained to this day."
- Option #1 -- what Jesus said was a Truth.
- Option #2 -- what Jesus said was a Falsehood.
Let me know which Option you choose to believe.